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  • Updated Aug-2026 Exam CISSP Dumps – Pass Your Certification Exam [Q716-Q738]

Updated Aug-2026 Exam CISSP Dumps – Pass Your Certification Exam [Q716-Q738]

Posted on August 10, 2026 By freedumps No Comments on Updated Aug-2026 Exam CISSP Dumps – Pass Your Certification Exam [Q716-Q738]
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Updated Aug-2026 Exam CISSP Dumps – Pass Your Certification Exam

Latest Real ISC CISSP Exam Dumps Questions

QUESTION 716
What is the MOST common component of a vulnerability management framework?

 
 
 
 
Patch management is the most common component of a vulnerability management framework. A vulnerability management framework is a set of policies and procedures that aim to identify, assess, and mitigate the vulnerabilities that may affect the organization’s information systems and assets. A vulnerability is a weakness or flaw in a system or an application that can be exploited by an attacker to compromise the security or functionality of the system or the application. Patch management is the process of applying patches, which are updates or fixes, to the systems or applications that have vulnerabilities. Patch management can help prevent or reduce the impact of potential attacks that exploit the vulnerabilities, and improve the performance and stability of the systems or applications. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7: Security Operations, page 376.

QUESTION 717
A software developer installs a game on their organization-provided smartphone. Upon installing the game, the software developer is prompted to allow the game access to call logs, Short Message Service (SMS) messaging, and Global Positioning System (GPS) location data. What has the game MOST likely introduced to the smartphone?

 
 
 
 
The game has most likely introduced a vulnerability to the smartphone. A vulnerability is a type of weakness or flaw in a system or a device, such as a smartphone, that can be exploited or leveraged by a threat or an attacker, to cause harm or damage to the system or the device, or to compromise the security, functionality, or usability of the system or the device. A vulnerability can be caused by various factors, such as the design, the configuration, the implementation, or the operation of the system or the device, or the software, the hardware, or the firmware that run on the system or the device. A game is a type of software application that can be installed or run on a system or a device, such as a smartphone, to provide entertainment, education, or simulation for the user or the player. A game can also introduce a vulnerability to the system or the device, if the game is not designed, developed, or tested properly or securely, or if the game requires or requests access to unnecessary or sensitive information or resources on the system or the device, such as the call logs, the SMS messaging, or the GPS location data. A game that introduces a vulnerability to the system or the device can expose the system or the device to potential attacks, such as unauthorized access, data leakage, or malware infection.

QUESTION 718
Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right.


Explanation

Risk – A measure of the extent to which an entity is threatened by a potential circumstance of event, the adverse impacts that would arise if the circumstance or event occurs, and the likelihood of occurrence.
Protection Needs Assessment – The method used to identify the confidentiality, integrity, and availability requirements for organizational and system assets and to characterize the adverse impact or consequences should be asset be lost, modified, degraded, disrupted, compromised, or become unavailable.
Threat assessment – The method used to identify and characterize the dangers anticipated throughout the life cycle of the system.
Security Risk Treatment – The method used to identify feasible security risk mitigation options and plans.

QUESTION 719
Which of the following actions should be performed when implementing a change to a database schema in a production system?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 720
An organization recently upgraded to a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) phone system. Management is concerned with unauthorized phone usage. security consultant is responsible for putting together a plan to secure these phones. Administrators have assigned unique personal identification number codes for each person in the organization. What is the BEST solution?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 721
Which choice below is usually the number one used criterion to determine
the classification of an information object?

 
 
 
 
The correct answer is Value. Value of the information asset to the organization is usually the first and foremost criteria used in determining its classification. Answer Useful lif refers to declassification of an information object due to some change in situation.

QUESTION 722
Which of the following is the BEST reason for writing an information security policy?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 723
Which of the following is NOT a common category/classification of threat to an IT system?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Hackers are classified as a human threat and not a classification by itself. All the other answers are incorrect. Threats result from a variety of factors, although they are classified in three types: Natural (e.g., hurricane, tornado, flood and fire), human (e.g. operator error, sabotage, malicious code) or technological (e.g. equipment failure, software error, telecommunications network outage, electric power failure).
References:
SWANSON, Marianne, & al., National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), http://csrc.nist.gov/ publications/nistpubs/800-34-rev1/sp800-34-rev1_errata-Nov11-2010.pdf, June 2002 (page 6).

QUESTION 724
Personally Identifiable Information (PIT) is becoming an extremely valuable asset to both organizations and hackers. Which of the following controls will BEST protect Pll from being leaked or intercepted?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 725
Which of the following standards concerns digital certificates?

 
 
 
 
X.509 is used in digital certificates. X.400 is used in e-mail as a message handling protocol. X.25 is a standard for the network and data link levels of a communication network and X.75 is a standard defining ways of connecting two X.25 networks.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 4: Cryptography
(page 164).

QUESTION 726
Which of the following resources is BEST located within a network’s Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 727
What is the Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)?

 
 
 
 
The Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) is the maximum length of time a BUSINESS FUNCTION can endure without being restored, beyond which the BUSINESS is no longer viable
NIST SAYS: The ISCP Coordinator should analyze the supported mission/business processes and with the process owners, leadership and business managers determine the acceptable downtime if a given process or specific system data were disrupted or otherwise unavailable. Downtime can be identified in several ways.
Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD). The MTD represents the total amount of time the system owner/authorizing official is willing to accept for a mission/business process outage or disruption and includes all impact considerations. Determining MTD is important because it could leave contingency planners with imprecise direction on selection of an appropriate recovery method, and the depth of detail which will be required when developing recovery procedures, including their scope and content.
Other BCP and DRP terms you must be familiar with are: Recovery Time Objective (RTO). RTO defines the maximum amount of time that a system resource can remain unavailable before there is an unacceptable impact on other system resources, supported mission/business processes, and the MTD. Determining the information system resource RTO is important for selecting appropriate technologies that are best suited for meeting the MTD. When it is not feasible to immediately meet the RTO and the MTD is inflexible, a Plan of Action and Milestone should be initiated to document the situation and plan for its mitigation.
Recovery Point Objective (RPO). The RPO represents the point in time, prior to a disruption or system outage, to which mission/business process data can be recovered (given the most recent backup copy of the data) after an outage. Unlike RTO, RPO is not considered as part of MTD. Rather, it is a factor of how much data loss the mission/business process can tolerate during the recovery process. Because the RTO must ensure that the MTD is not exceeded, the RTO must normally be shorter than the MTD. For example, a system outage may prevent a particular process from being completed, and because it takes time to reprocess the data, that additional processing time must be added to the RTO to stay within the time limit established by the MTD.
References used for this question: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Page 276. and http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/nistpubs/800-34-rev1/sp800-34-rev1_errata-Nov11-2010.pdf

QUESTION 728
A message can be encrypted and digitally signed, which provides:

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Confidentiality ensures that a message can only be read by the intended recipient. Encrypting a message provides confidentiality.
A digital signature provides Authentication, Non-repudiation, and Integrity.
The purpose of digital signatures is to detect unauthorized modifications of data, and to authenticate the identity of the signatories and non-repudiation. These functions are accomplished by generating a block of data that is usually smaller than the size of the original data. This smaller block of data is bound to the original data and to the identity of the sender. This binding verifies the integrity of data and provides non- repudiation. To quote the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) Digital Signature Standard (DSS): Digital signatures are used to detect unauthorized modifications to data and to authenticate the identity of the signatory. In addition, the recipient of signed data can use a digital signature in proving to a third party that the signature was in fact generated by the signatory.
Different steps and algorithms provide different types of security services:
A message can be encrypted, which provides confidentiality.

A message can be hashed, which provides integrity

A message can be digitally signed, which provides authentication, nonrepudiation, and integrity.

A message can be encrypted and digitally signed, which provides confidentiality, authentication,

nonrepudiation, and integrity
Incorrect Answers:
B: A digital signature provides Authentication, Non-repudiation, and Integrity; not just Authentication.
C: A digital signature provides Authentication, Non-repudiation, and Integrity; not just Non-repudiation.
D: A digital signature provides Authentication, Non-repudiation, and Integrity; not just Integrity.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, 2013, pp. 829-830 Krutz, Ronald L. and Russel Dean Vines, The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, New York, 2001, p. 151

QUESTION 729
What is the MOST important goal of conducting security assessments?

 
 
 
 
The most important goal of conducting security assessments is to discover unmitigated security vulnerabilities, and propose paths for mitigating them. A security assessment is a process that involves evaluating and testing the security posture and performance of a system or network, and identifying and reporting any security vulnerabilities or issues that may pose a security risk. A security assessment can help to discover unmitigated security vulnerabilities, which are the security flaws or weaknesses that have not been detected, reported, or resolved, and that can be exploited by the adversaries to compromise the security of the system or network. A security assessment can also help to propose paths for mitigating the security vulnerabilities, which are the actions or measures that can be taken to eliminate, reduce, or transfer the security risk associated with the security vulnerabilities. Discovering unmitigated security vulnerabilities, and proposing paths for mitigating them, is the most important goal of conducting security assessments, as it can help to improve the security level and quality of the system or network, and to prevent or minimize the potential damage or loss caused by the security incidents or breaches.

QUESTION 730
What principle requires that changes to the plaintext affect many parts of the ciphertext?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 731
A shared resource matrix is a technique commonly used to locate:

 
 
 
 
Analyzing resources of a system is one standard for locating covert channels because the basis of a covert channel is a shared resource.
The following properties must hold for a storage channel to exist:
1.Both sending and receiving process must have access to the same attribute of a shared object.
2.The sending process must be able to modify the attribute of the shared object.
3.The receiving process must be able to reference that attribute of the shared object.
4.A mechanism for initiating both processes and properly sequencing their respective accesses to the shared resource must exist.
Note: Similar properties for timing channel can be listed
The following answers are incorrect:
All other answers were not directly related to discovery of Covert Channels.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
Auerbach Publications, Auerbach Publications (Test Series) – CRC Press LLC, Page No. 225
and
http://www.cs.ucsb.edu/~sherwood/cs290/papers/covert-kemmerer.pdf
and
http://www.cs.utexas.edu/~byoung/cs361/lecture16.pdf
and
http://www.cs.utexas.edu/~byoung/cs361/lecture16.pdf

QUESTION 732
Including a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) in the design of a computer system is an example of a technique to what?

 
 
 
 
Including a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) in the design of a computer system is an example of a technique to establish a secure initial state. A TPM is a hardware device that provides cryptographic functions and secure storage for keys, certificates, passwords, and other sensitive data. A TPM can also measure and verify the integrity of the system components, such as the BIOS, boot loader, operating system, and applications, before they are executed. This process is known as trusted boot or measured boot, and it ensures that the system is in a known and trusted state before allowing access to the user or network. A TPM can also enable features such as disk encryption, remote attestation, and platform authentication.

QUESTION 733
What is a programmable logic device (PLD)?

 
 
 
 
*Answer A volatile device is incorrect because a PLD is non-volatile.
*Answer “Random Access Memory (RAM) that contains the software to perform specific tasks” is incorrect because random access memory is volatile memory that is not a nonvolatile logic device.
*Answer “A program resident on disk memory that executes a specific function” is a distracter.

QUESTION 734
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
Desktop computers in an organization were sanitized for re-use in an equivalent security environment. The data was destroyed in accordance with organizational policy and all marking and other external indications of the sensitivity of the data that was formerly stored on the magnetic drives were removed.
After magnetic drives were degaussed twice according to the product manufacturer’s directions, what is the MOST LIKELY security issue with degaussing?

 
 
 
 
The most likely security issue with degaussing is that the degausser products may not be properly maintained and operated. Degaussing is a method of sanitizing magnetic media, such as hard disk drives, by applying a strong magnetic field that erases the data stored on the media. Degaussing can be effective in destroying the data, but it requires that the degausser products are calibrated, tested, and used according to the manufacturer’s specifications and instructions. If the degausser products are not properly maintained and operated, they may not generate a sufficient magnetic force to erase the data completely, or they may damage the media or the device. Commercial products often have serious weaknesses of the magnetic force available in the degausser product, the inability to turn the drive around in the chamber for the second pass due to human error, and inadequate record keeping when sanitizing media are not the most likely security issues with degaussing, as they are related to the quality, the technique, or the documentation of the degaussing process, not the maintenance or the operation of the degausser products. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 7, Security Operations, page 888. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7, Security Operations, page 904.

QUESTION 735
When recovering from an outage, what is the Recovery Point Objective (RPO), in terms of data recovery?

 
 
 
 
The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is a metric that defines the amount of data that can be lost or not recovered in the event of a disaster or an outage. It is measured in terms of time, such as hours or days, and represents the point in time to which the data must be restored to resume normal operations. For example, if the RPO is 24 hours, then the backup data must be no older than 24 hours, and the maximum data loss is 24 hours worth of data. The RPO is determined by the business impact analysis (BIA) and the risk assessment, and it depends on the criticality and value of the data. The other options are not correct. The RPO is not the minimum amount of data that needs to be recovered, nor a goal to recover a targeted percentage of data lost, nor the amount of time it takes to recover an acceptable percentage of data lost. These are related to the Recovery Time Objective (RTO), which is another metric that defines the maximum amount of time for which the system can be down or unavailable after a disaster or an outage. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 8: Security Operations, page 1004. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 7: Security Operations, page 1010.

QUESTION 736
Which of the following can be defined as the process of rerunning a portion of the test scenario or test plan to ensure that changes or corrections have not introduced new errors?

 
 
 
 
Regression testing is the process of rerunning a portion of the test scenario or test plan to ensure that changes or corrections have not introduced new errors. The data used in regression testing should be the same as the data used in the original test. Unit testing refers to
the testing of an individual program or module. Pilot testing is a preliminary test that focuses only
on specific and predetermined aspects of a system. Parallel testing is the process of feeding test
data into two systems and comparing the results.
Source: Information Systems Audit and Control Association, Certified Information Systems Auditor
2002 review manual, Chapter 6: Business Application System Development, Acquisition,
Implementation and Maintenance (page 300).

QUESTION 737
In order to enable users to perform tasks and duties without having to go through extra steps it is important that the security controls and mechanisms that are in place have a degree of?

 
 
 
 
The security controls and mechanisms that are in place must have a degree of transparency.
This enables the user to perform tasks and duties without having to go through extra steps because of the presence of the security controls. Transparency also does not let the user know too much about the controls, which helps prevent him from figuring out how to circumvent them. If the controls are too obvious, an attacker can figure out how to compromise them more easily.
Security (more specifically, the implementation of most security controls) has long been a sore point with users who are subject to security controls. Historically, security controls have been very intrusive to users, forcing them to interrupt their work flow and remember arcane codes or processes (like long passwords or access codes), and have generally been seen as an obstacle to getting work done. In recent years, much work has been done to remove that stigma of security controls as a detractor from the work process adding nothing but time and money. When developing access control, the system must be as transparent as possible to the end user. The users should be required to interact with the system as little as possible, and the process around using the control should be engineered so as to involve little effort on the part of the user.
For example, requiring a user to swipe an access card through a reader is an effective way to ensure a person is authorized to enter a room. However, implementing a technology
(such as RFID) that will automatically scan the badge as the user approaches the door is more transparent to the user and will do less to impede the movement of personnel in a busy area.
In another example, asking a user to understand what applications and data sets will be required when requesting a system ID and then specifically requesting access to those resources may allow for a great deal of granularity when provisioning access, but it can hardly be seen as transparent. A more transparent process would be for the access provisioning system to have a role-based structure, where the user would simply specify the role he or she has in the organization and the system would know the specific resources that user needs to access based on that role. This requires less work and interaction on the part of the user and will lead to more accurate and secure access control decisions because access will be based on predefined need, not user preference.
When developing and implementing an access control system special care should be taken to ensure that the control is as transparent to the end user as possible and interrupts his work flow as little as possible.
The following answers were incorrect:
All of the other detractors were incorrect.
Reference(s) used for this question:
HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, 6th edition. Operations
Security, Page 1239-1240
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition (Kindle Locations
25278-25281). McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition :
Access Control ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 713-729). Auerbach Publications. Kindle
Edition.

QUESTION 738
To comply with industry requirements, a security assessment on the cloud server should identify which protocols and weaknesses are being exposed to attackers on the Internet.
Which of the following tools is the MOST appropriate to complete the assessment?

 
 
 
 
Nmap is a tool that can perform network scanning and enumeration, as well as vulnerability detection and exploitation. It can be used to identify which protocols and weaknesses are being exposed to attackers on the Internet by scanning the servers’ public IP addresses and analyzing the open ports, services, and configurations. Nmap can also provide information about the operating system, version, and patch level of the servers, as well as the potential vulnerabilities and exploits that can be used against them. Nmap is the most appropriate tool to complete the security assessment on the cloud server, as it can provide a comprehensive and accurate view of the network exposure and risk. The other options are not as appropriate or effective as nmap, as they either do not provide enough information, do not target the right network, or do not scan the network at all. References: CISSP – Certified Information Systems Security Professional, Domain 4.
Communication and Network Security, 4.2 Secure network components, 4.2.2 Prevent or mitigate network attacks, 4.2.2.1 Network discovery and mapping; CISSP Exam Outline, Domain 4. Communication and Network Security, 4.2 Secure network components, 4.2.2 Prevent or mitigate network attacks, 4.2.2.1 Network discovery and mapping

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