Skip to content

Free certification exam prep

  • HOME
  • ALL EXAMS
  • SAP
  • Amazon
  • Cisco
  • CompTIA
  • Google
  • HP
  • Huawei
  • Microsoft
  • Oracle
  • Salesforce
  • Contact
  • Home
  • 2026
  • August
  • 29
  • [2026] Pass CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence Exam – Real Questions & Answers [Q83-Q104]

[2026] Pass CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence Exam – Real Questions & Answers [Q83-Q104]

Posted on August 29, 2026 By freedumps No Comments on [2026] Pass CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence Exam – Real Questions & Answers [Q83-Q104]
Uncategorized
Rate this post

[2026] Pass CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence Exam – Real Questions and Answers

CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence Exam Questions Get Updated [2026] with Correct Answers

The ACFE CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence exam covers a wide range of topics related to fraud prevention and deterrence, including fraud risk management, fraud investigation, and the legal aspects of fraud. CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence exam is designed to test the candidate’s knowledge and understanding of these topics, as well as their ability to apply this knowledge in real-world situations. CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence exam is challenging and requires a significant amount of preparation and study.

 

NO.83 Which of the following is TRUE regarding the communication of the fraud risk assessment process?

 
 
 
 

NO.84 Black, a Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE). was hired to conduct a fraud examination. He did not find fraud, but. in Black’s opinion, the controls he examined were deficient. Under the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics. Black is not permitted to express his opinion on the deficient controls.

 
 

NO.85 Effectively documenting and communicating organizational hierarchies, including the proper flow of information, can be a helpful tool in preventing fraud

 
 

NO.86 As part of its anti-fraud program, Oak Company is outlining the responsibilities of different stakeholders.
Who is ultimately responsible for setting the organization’s ethical tone?

 
 
 
 
The Corporate Governance chapter explicitly states that management’s roles include setting the organization’s true ethical tone. The Management’s Fraud-Related Responsibilities chapter reinforces this point by explaining that management must set the ethical tone for the organization and that this statement of management philosophy forms the foundation of the compliance and ethics program. While boards, legal counsel, HR, and fraud examiners all have important supporting roles, the manual places ultimate responsibility for establishing the organization’s real ethical environment on management. This is significant because employees judge the organization’s values not merely by written policies but by leadership’s actions, priorities, and consistency. A strong tone at the top is therefore a central anti-fraud responsibility of management, making option B the correct answer.

NO.87 (Acme, Inc. is a publicly traded, multinational corporation. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the corporate governance requirements that Acme is subject to?)

 
 
 
 
The Corporate Governance chapter explains that there is no single universal corporate governance law that applies to all organizations everywhere. Instead, governance requirements arise from a combination of legislation, regulations, listing rules, and governance codes that vary by jurisdiction. The manual also notes that international principles, such as the G20/OECD Principles, are intended to work across different legal and regulatory frameworks, which reinforces that organizations operating in multiple countries may face multiple applicable governance regimes. A publicly traded multinational corporation therefore cannot rely solely on standards adopted by its own board, nor can it ignore governance rules because it operates internationally. The most accurate statement is that Acme must comply with the corporate governance-related legislation that applies in the jurisdictions where it operates.

NO.88 An effective system of anti-fraud controls

 
 
 
 

NO.89 According to the results of behavioral studies, such as those conducted by B. F. Skinner, application of punishment to undesired behavior typically results in which of the following?

 
 
 
 
* Behavioral Studies by B.F. Skinner:
* Punishment may temporarily suppress undesired behavior but does not address the root cause or provide alternative positive behaviors.
* Once punishment ceases, the behavior often resurfaces.
* Analysis of Options:
* A. Increase in behavior: This contradicts findings; punishment reduces behavior temporarily.
* B. No effect: Punishment does affect behavior but typically in the short term.
* D. Permanent suppression: Rarely achieved without reinforcement of alternative behaviors.
* Conclusion:Punishment results in temporary suppression of undesired behavior.

NO.90 Iris, a manager at Mega Corp., oversees fraud awareness training for the organization’s employees. When reviewing the training for the coming year, Iris should ensure that Mega Corp.’s employee anti-fraud education:

 
 
 
 
Anti-fraud education should help employees understand what fraud is, how it occurs, how to report it, and how it harms the organization and its people. Training should include examples showing that fraud causes lost resources, lower morale, reputational damage, investigation costs, possible layoffs, reduced bonuses, and increased scrutiny. Option A is therefore correct. Fraud awareness training should not be limited to executives because all employees can help prevent and detect fraud. It also should not be restricted to informal newsletters; formal and recurring training is important. Finally, organizations should avoid disclosing detailed information about specific detection controls in a way that helps fraudsters bypass them. Effective training builds awareness, personalizes the harm caused by fraud, and strengthens employee commitment to prevention.

NO.91 The internal auditor’s fraud-related responsibilities include which of the following?

 
 
 
 

NO.92 Which of the following is FALSE regarding a fraud risk assessment?

 
 
 
 
* Purpose of Fraud Risk Assessment:
* The goal is to identify vulnerabilities to fraud and implement preventive measures, not to wait for conclusive evidence of fraud before designating high-risk areas.
* Proactive Identification:
* High-risk areas are identified based on susceptibility to fraud (e.g., lack of controls, high cash transactions), even if no fraud has been detected. This approach allows organizations to act preemptively.
* Improving Fraud Awareness:
* Employee education and behavior monitoring are integral components of the assessment process to reduce fraud risks.
* Incorrect Assumption in D:
* Waiting for conclusive evidence contradicts the proactive nature of fraud risk assessment and undermines its preventative function.
References for All Questions:
* ACFE Code of Professional Ethics.
* Auditor Essentials on fraud prevention and deterrence principles.
* COSO and risk assessment frameworks in internal controls.

NO.93 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding an organization’s fraud risk management program?

 
 
 
 

NO.94 Which of the following statements regarding a fraud risk assessment is MOST ACCURATE?

 
 
 
 
A fraud risk assessment is a proactive process for identifying and addressing an organization’s vulnerabilities to fraud. The CFE material defines it as a process aimed at identifying and addressing vulnerabilities to both internal and external fraud. Option B is therefore correct. Option A is incorrect because the primary purpose is not to calculate total historical fraud losses, which are often unknown and difficult to measure. Option C is too limited because the assessment should evaluate entity-level risks, process-level risks, departments, roles, and individuals with access or authority that creates fraud exposure. Option D is also incorrect because high-risk areas can be identified based on vulnerability, likelihood, and significance, even without conclusive evidence that fraud has already occurred.

NO.95 Which of the following is TRUE regarding an organization s ethics program?

 
 
 
 

NO.96 Which of the following is FALSE regarding the process of defining the objective of the fraud risk management program?

 
 
 
 

NO.97 The Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission (COSO) defines internal control as:

 
 
 
 
COSO defines internal control as a process effected by the board of directors, management, and other personnel, designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding achievement of objectives relating to operations, reporting, and compliance. Option B matches that definition. Option A more closely describes a risk management review concept, not the definition of internal control. Option C is incorrect because internal control provides reasonable assurance; it does not eliminate all uncertainty and risk. Option D describes a fraud risk assessment, not internal control. In corporate governance and fraud prevention, internal control is central because it supports reliable reporting, efficient operations, compliance, accountability, and fraud risk reduction. However, even strong internal control has limitations, so it provides reasonable rather than absolute assurance.

NO.98 To reduce the probability of fraud in financial reports, the National Commission on Fraudulent Financial Reporting, also known as the Treadway Commission, made which of the following recommendations?

 
 
 
 
The Treadway Commission emphasized the importance of strong corporate governance, effective audit committees, and oversight of the financial reporting process. One of its recommendations was that audit committees should have clear responsibilities, which are commonly documented in a written charter. A written audit committee charter helps define authority, duties, communication responsibilities, and oversight of financial reporting risks. Option A is incorrect because the recommendation is not to create a mandatory independent finance committee. Option C is incorrect because shareholders do not normally oversee hotline reporting programs directly. Option D is also inaccurate because the recommendation is not merely to give management more resources; governance oversight requires independent audit committee involvement.
Therefore, developing a written charter for the audit committee is the correct answer.

NO.99 Which of the following would MOST LIKELY be a violation of the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics?

 
 
 
 
* Analysis of Each Option:
* A. Green’s conduct: Including unrelated deficiencies violates the principle of relevance and focus in reporting. It may lead to confusion or breach professional diligence.
* B. Stephanie’s conduct: Delegating tasks without oversight or review violates the ACFE Code’s requirement for due diligence.
* C. Susan’s conduct: Failing to seek client authorization before disclosing records (even under a court order) breaches confidentiality provisions unless explicitly required by law.
* Key Ethical Considerations:
* CFEs must adhere to principles of confidentiality, diligence, and focus in their work.
* Failing to follow these standards compromises the integrity and credibility of their practice.
* Conclusion:All the described scenarios involve violations of the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics.

NO.100 Which of the following is one of the four recommendations made by the National Commission on Fraudulent Financial Reporting the Treadway Commission to reduce the probability of fraud in financial reports?

 
 
 
 
The Corporate Governance chapter explains that the Treadway Commission made four recommendations aimed at reducing the likelihood of fraud in financial reporting. These recommendations were directed to the board of directors’ audit committee and included having an independent audit committee, a written charter for the audit committee, adequate resources and authority, and informed, vigilant, and effective audit committee members. The manual specifically states that the existence of an audit committee and a written charter is not enough; the committee must also have adequate resources and authority to carry out its responsibilities. That language directly matches option C. The other choices either substitute the wrong committee, assign the charter to management instead of the audit committee, or improperly shift oversight of internal controls to shareholders.

NO.101 The generation and use of relevant, quality information to support the functioning of internal control is a principle related to which component of the Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commissions (COSO) Internal Control-Integrated Framework (the Framework)?

 
 
 
 

NO.102 According to International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 31000:2018, an organization’s risk management program should be proportionate to the organization’s specific operations and objectives.

 
 
ISO 31000:2018 Guidelines:
* This standard emphasizes that a risk management framework should align with the organization’s size, complexity, objectives, and operations to ensure effectiveness and relevance.
Why A is Correct:
* Proportionality ensures that resources are allocated efficiently, addressing risks that directly impact the organization’s goals while avoiding overcomplication.
References:
* ISO 31000:2018 risk management principles.

NO.103 Armando has been tasked with developing policies to help prevent crime by using the threat of criminal sanctions to control the immediate behavior of individuals. Which of the following strategies to control crime is Armando using?

 
 
 
 

NO.104 Maj, a Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE), engaged in an illegal activity but did not know that the activity was illegal. Which of the following statements about the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics is TRUE?

 
 
 
 
The ACFE Code of Professional Ethics requires CFEs to conduct themselves lawfully and ethically. A CFE’s lack of knowledge that an activity is illegal does not automatically excuse the conduct under professional ethics. Fraud examiners are expected to exercise due care, maintain competence, and avoid conduct that discredits the profession. The Code is not limited to conduct that results in a criminal conviction; professional discipline can arise from conduct that violates ethical standards even if no court conviction occurs. Option B is incorrect because the Code does address illegal and unethical conduct. Option C is too narrow because ignorance of the law does not eliminate professional responsibility. Option D is incorrect because conviction is not the only basis for ethical violation. Therefore, Maj’s illegal conduct would violate the Code regardless of the circumstances stated.

Loading ... Loading …

Loading

Practice CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence Questions With Certification guide Q&A from Training Expert Free4Dump: https://www.free4dump.com/CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence-braindumps-torrent.html

         

Related Links: telegra.ph www.stes.tyc.edu.tw www.stes.tyc.edu.tw www.stes.tyc.edu.tw myportal.utt.edu.tt app.intigriti.com

Tags: CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence new exam discount CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence online version CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence reliable exam collection pdf CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence test dumps demo CFE-Fraud-Prevention-and-Deterrence valid exam labs

Post navigation

❮ Previous Post: Aug 27, 2026 Detailed New 1Z0-1033-26 Exam Questions for Concept Clearance [Q46-Q64]
Next Post: 350-401 Practice Exams and Training Solutions for Certifications [Q36-Q60] ❯

You may also like

Uncategorized
Latest [Jul 16, 2026] NLN NEX Real Exam Dumps PDF [Q54-Q72]
July 16, 2026
Uncategorized
2026 The Most Effective C_P2W10_2504 with 80 Questions Answers [Q27-Q47]
July 31, 2026
Uncategorized
New (2026) Network Appliance NS0-194 Exam Dumps [Q37-Q53]
September 22, 2026
Uncategorized
Best PSM-I Exam Dumps for the Preparation of Latest Exam Questions [Q164-Q183]
August 22, 2026

Leave a Reply Cancel reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Enter the text from the image below
 

Recent Posts

  • [Q301-Q321] Free SAP-C02 Questions for Amazon SAP-C02 Exam [Sep-2026]
  • Ace PCPP-32-101 Certification with 71 Actual Questions [Q41-Q65]
  • [Sep 27, 2026] Get Latest and 100% Accurate Databricks-Machine-Learning-Professional Exam Questions [Q36-Q51]
  • ISA-IEC-62443 Premium PDF & Test Engine Files with 221 Questions & Answers [Q87-Q107]
  • [Sep-2026] ITILFND_V4 Exam Dumps – Free Demo & 365 Day Updates [Q44-Q60]

Archives

  • September 2026 (17)
  • August 2026 (20)
  • July 2026 (9)
  • May 2026 (10)
  • April 2026 (8)
  • March 2026 (23)
  • February 2026 (23)
  • January 2026 (13)
  • December 2025 (22)
  • November 2025 (2)
  • October 2025 (4)
  • September 2025 (9)
  • August 2025 (8)
  • July 2025 (5)
  • April 2025 (6)
  • March 2025 (10)
  • February 2025 (16)
  • January 2025 (18)
  • December 2024 (10)
  • November 2024 (14)
  • October 2024 (19)
  • September 2024 (7)
  • August 2024 (4)
  • July 2024 (13)
  • June 2024 (22)
  • May 2024 (11)
  • April 2024 (4)
  • March 2024 (18)
  • February 2024 (15)
  • January 2024 (29)
  • December 2023 (42)
  • November 2023 (28)
  • October 2023 (24)
  • September 2023 (20)
  • August 2023 (14)
  • July 2023 (18)
  • June 2023 (17)
  • May 2023 (19)
  • April 2023 (30)
  • March 2023 (13)
  • February 2023 (28)
  • January 2023 (23)
  • December 2022 (36)
  • November 2022 (21)
  • October 2022 (21)
  • September 2022 (16)
  • August 2022 (35)
  • July 2022 (29)
  • June 2022 (33)

Categories

  • A10 Networks (1)
  • AACE International (1)
  • AACN (1)
  • ACAMS (4)
  • ACT (1)
  • Adobe (11)
  • AFP (1)
  • AGA (1)
  • AICPA (1)
  • Alibaba Cloud (2)
  • Amazon (16)
  • APMG-International (3)
  • ASIS (1)
  • ASQ (5)
  • ATLASSIAN (2)
  • Avaya (3)
  • BACB (1)
  • BCS (7)
  • BICSI (2)
  • Blue Prism (1)
  • Broadcom (1)
  • Business Architecture Guild (1)
  • CCE Global (1)
  • Certinia (1)
  • CertNexus (2)
  • CheckPoint (1)
  • CIDQ (1)
  • CIMA (6)
  • CIPS (2)
  • Cisco (39)
  • CISI (1)
  • Citrix (3)
  • CIW (1)
  • Cloud Security Alliance (1)
  • CloudBees (1)
  • College Admission (1)
  • CompTIA (15)
  • Confluent (1)
  • CWNP (1)
  • DAMA (1)
  • Databricks (5)
  • Docker (1)
  • EC-COUNCIL (6)
  • ECCouncil (2)
  • EMC (10)
  • EXIN (6)
  • F5 (2)
  • Facebook (2)
  • FINRA (1)
  • Forescout (1)
  • Fortinet (21)
  • GAQM (4)
  • GED (1)
  • Genesys (2)
  • GIAC (2)
  • Google (5)
  • H3C (1)
  • HashiCorp (2)
  • Hitachi (3)
  • HP (19)
  • HRCI (1)
  • Huawei (42)
  • IAPP (6)
  • IBM (12)
  • IIA (3)
  • IIBA (3)
  • IICRC (1)
  • ISACA (6)
  • ISC (5)
  • ISM (1)
  • ISQI (4)
  • Juniper (16)
  • Linux Foundation (2)
  • Lpi (3)
  • Maryland Insurance Administration (1)
  • Medical Professional (1)
  • Microsoft (38)
  • MikroTik (1)
  • MuleSoft (3)
  • NACE (1)
  • NASM (1)
  • NBMTM (1)
  • NCLEX (1)
  • Netskope (1)
  • NetSuite (2)
  • Network Appliance (5)
  • NFPA (1)
  • NICET (1)
  • NSCA (1)
  • Nutanix (11)
  • OCEG (1)
  • OMG (1)
  • Oracle (45)
  • Palo Alto Networks (7)
  • PCI SSC (1)
  • PECB (2)
  • Pegasystems (5)
  • PMI (5)
  • PRINCE2 (2)
  • PRMIA (1)
  • Python Institute (3)
  • Qlik (3)
  • RedHat (1)
  • RUCKUS (1)
  • Salesforce (78)
  • SAP (180)
  • Scrum (10)
  • ServiceNow (12)
  • Shared Assessments (2)
  • Sitecore (2)
  • Snowflake (5)
  • Splunk (4)
  • Symantec (1)
  • Tableau (5)
  • The Open Group (2)
  • Tibco (1)
  • Trend (1)
  • Uncategorized (34)
  • Veeam (1)
  • VMware (15)
  • WGU (3)
  • Workday (1)
  • WorldatWork (1)
  • DMCA
  • Privacy Policy
  • Contact now

Copyright © 2026 Free certification exam prep.

Theme: Oceanly News by ScriptsTown