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  • [2023] Practice with these CSSLP dumps Certification Sample Questions [Q40-Q57]

[2023] Practice with these CSSLP dumps Certification Sample Questions [Q40-Q57]

Posted on November 15, 2023 By freedumps No Comments on [2023] Practice with these CSSLP dumps Certification Sample Questions [Q40-Q57]
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[2023] Practice with these CSSLP dumps Certification Sample Questions

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QUESTION 40
Which of the following are the responsibilities of the owner with regard to data in an information classification program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.

 
 
 
 
The following are the responsibilities of the owner with regard to data in an information classification program: Determining what level of classification the information requires. Reviewing the classification assignments at regular time intervals and making changes as the business needs change. Delegating the responsibility of the data protection duties to a custodian. An information owner can be an executive or a manager of an organization. He will be responsible for the asset of information that must be protected. Answer B is incorrect. Running regular backups and routinely testing the validity of the backup data is the responsibility of a custodian.

QUESTION 41
Which of the following types of obfuscation transformation increases the difficulty for a de-obfuscation tool so that it cannot extract the true application from the obfuscated version?

 
 
 
 
Preventive transformation increases the difficulty for a de-obfuscation tool so that it cannot extract the true application from the obfuscated version.

QUESTION 42
DoD 8500.2 establishes IA controls for information systems according to the Mission Assurance Categories (MAC) and confidentiality levels. Which of the following MAC levels requires high integrity and medium availability?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The various MAC levels are as follows: MAC I: It states that the systems have high availability and high integrity. MAC II: It states that the systems have high integrity and medium availability. MAC III: It states that the systems have basic integrity and availability.

QUESTION 43
The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the minimum standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that handle U.S. national security information. What are the different types of NIACAP accreditation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: NIACAP accreditation is of three types depending on what is being certified. They are as follows: 1.Site accreditation: This type of accreditation evaluates the applications and systems at a specific, self contained location. 2.Type accreditation: This type of accreditation evaluates an application or system that is distributed to a number of different locations. 3.System accreditation: This accreditation evaluates a major application or general support system. AnswerC is incorrect. No such type of NIACAP accreditation exists.

QUESTION 44
You work as a system engineer for BlueWell Inc. You want to verify that the build meets its data requirements, and correctly generates each expected display and report. Which of the following tests will help you to perform the above task?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The various types of internal tests performed on builds are as follows: Regression tests: It is also known as the verification testing. These tests are developed to confirm that capabilities in earlier builds continue to work correctly in the subsequent builds. Functional test: These tests emphasizes on verifying that the build meets its functional and data requirements and correctly generates each expected display and report. Performance tests: These tests are used to identify the performance thresholds of each build. Reliability tests: These tests are used to identify the reliability thresholds of each build.

QUESTION 45
Which of the following is the process of finding weaknesses in cryptographic algorithms and obtaining the plaintext or key from the ciphertext?

 
 
 
 
 
is incorrect. Cryptography is a branch of computer science and mathematics. It is used for protecting information by encoding it into an unreadable format known as cipher text.

QUESTION 46
The LeGrand Vulnerability-Oriented Risk Management method is based on vulnerability analysis and consists of four principle steps. Which of the following processes does the risk assessment step include? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

 
 
 
 
Risk assessment includes identification of vulnerabilities, assessment of losses caused by threats materialized, cost-benefit examination of countermeasures, and assessment of attacks. Answer A is incorrect. This process is included in the vulnerability management.

QUESTION 47
What are the subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase of the DIACAP process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

 
 
 
 
 
 
The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States Department of Defense (DoD) for managing risk. The subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase are as follows: Register system with DoD Component IA Program. Assign IA controls. Assemble DIACAP team. Develop DIACAP strategy. Initiate IA implementation plan. Answer F is incorrect. Validation activities are conducted in the second phase of the DIACAP process, i.e., Implement and Validate Assigned IA Controls.

QUESTION 48
John works as a security manager for SoftTech Inc. He is working with his team on the disaster recovery management plan. One of his team members has a doubt related to the most cost effective DRP testing plan. According to you, which of the following disaster recovery testing plans is the most cost-effective and efficient way to identify areas of overlap in the plan before conducting more demanding training exercises?

 
 
 
 
The structured walk-through test is also known as the table-top exercise. In structured walk-through test, the team members walkthrough the plan to identify and correct weaknesses and how they will respond to the emergency scenarios by stepping in the course of the plan. It is the most effective and competent way to identify the areas of overlap in the plan before conducting more challenging training exercises. Answer A is incorrect. In full-scale exercise, the critical systems run at an alternate site. Answer B is incorrect. The emergency management group and response teams actually perform their emergency response functions by walking through the test, without actually initiating recovery procedures. But it is not much cost effective. Answer D is incorrect. It is a test performed when personnel walks through the evacuation route to a designated area where procedures for accounting for the personnel are tested.

QUESTION 49
A security policy is an overall general statement produced by senior management that dictates what role security plays within the organization. Which of the following are required to be addressed in a well designed policy? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A security policy is an overall general statement produced by senior management (or a selected policy board or committee) that dictates what role security plays within the organization. A well designed policy addresses the following: What is being secured? – Typically an asset. Who is expected to comply with the policy? – Typically employees. Where is the vulnerability, threat, or risk? – Typically an issue of integrity or responsibility.

QUESTION 50
Which of the following security models dictates that subjects can only access objects through applications?

 
 
 
 
The Clark-Wilson security model dictates that subjects can only access objects through applications. Answer A is incorrect. The Biba model does not let subjects write to objects at a higher integrity level. Answer B is incorrect. The Bell-LaPadula model has a simple security rule, which means a subject cannot read data from a higher level. Answer D is incorrect. There is no such model as Biba-Clark model.

QUESTION 51
SIMULATION
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. A is defined as any activity that has an effect on defining, designing, building, or executing a task, requirement, or procedure.

technical effort
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: A technical effort is described as any activity, which has an effect on defining, designing, building, or implementing a task, requirement, or procedure. The technical effort is an element of technical management that is required to progress efficiently and effectively from a business need to the deployment and operation of the system.

QUESTION 52
There are seven risks responses that a project manager can choose from. Which risk response is appropriate for both positive and negative risk events?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Only acceptance is appropriate for both positive and negative risk events. Often sharing is used for low probability and low impact risk events regardless of the positive or negative effects the risk event may bring the project. Acceptance response is a part of Risk Response planning process.
Acceptance response delineates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk.
Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk does occur. Acceptance response to a risk event is a strategy that can be used for risks that pose either threats or opportunities. Acceptance response can be of two types: Passive acceptance: It is a strategy in which no plans are made to try or avoid or mitigate the risk. Active acceptance: Such responses include developing contingency reserves to deal with risks, in case they occur. Acceptance is the only response for both threats and opportunities. Answer: C is incorrect. Sharing is a positive risk response that shares an opportunity for all parties involved in the risk event. Answer: B is incorrect. Transference is a negative risk event that transfers the risk ownership to a third party, such as vendor, through a contractual relationship. Answer: D is incorrect. Mitigation is a negative risk event that seeks to lower the probability and/or impact of a risk event.

QUESTION 53
Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is a logical process used by programmers to develop software. Which of the following SDLC phases meets the audit objectives defined below: System and data are validated. System meets all user requirements. System meets all control requirements.

 
 
 
 
It is the evaluation and acceptance phase of the SDLC, which meets the following audit objectives: System and data are validated. System meets all user requirements. System meets all control requirements Answer D is incorrect. During the initiation phase, the need for a system is expressed and the purpose of the system is documented. Answer C is incorrect. During the definition phase, users’ needs are defined and the needs are translated into requirements statements that incorporate appropriate controls. Answer B is incorrect. During the programming and training phase, the software and other components of the system are faithfully incorporated into the design specifications. Proper documentation and training are provided in this phase.

QUESTION 54
You work as a Security Manager for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows based network. It is required to determine compatibility of the systems with custom applications. Which of the following techniques will you use to accomplish the task?

 
 
 
 
In order to accomplish the task, you should use the software testing technique. By using this technique you can determine compatibility of systems with custom applications or you can identify other unforeseen interactions. You can also use the software testing technique while you are upgrading software. Answer B is incorrect. You can use the antivirus management to save the systems from viruses, unexpected software interactions, and the subversion of security controls. Answer A is incorrect. You can use the safe software storage technique to ensure that the software and backup copies have not been modified without authorization. Answer C is incorrect. You can use the backup control to perform back up of software and data.

QUESTION 55
Which of the following specifies access privileges to a collection of resources by using the URL mapping?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Security constraint is a type of declarative security, which specifies the protection of web content. It also specifies access privileges to a collection of resources by using the URL mapping. A deployment descriptor is used to define the security constraint. Security constraint includes the following elements: Web resource collection Authorization constraint User data constraint Answer: A is incorrect.
Code Access Security (CAS), in the Microsoft .NET framework, is Microsoft’s solution to prevent untrusted code from performing privileged actions. When the CLR (common language runtime) loads an assembly it will obtain evidence for the assembly and use this to identify the code group that the assembly belongs to.
A code group contains a permission set (one or more permissions). Code that performs a privileged action will perform a code access demand, which will cause the CLR to walk up the call stack and examine the permission set granted to the assembly of each method in the call stack. The code groups and permission sets are determined by the administrator of the machine who defines the security policy. Answer: D is incorrect. Access Management is used to grant authorized users the right to use a service, while preventing access to non- authorized users. The Access Management process essentially executes policies defined in IT Security Management. It is sometimes also referred to as Rights Management or Identity Management. It is part of Service Operation and the owner of Access Management is the Access Manager. Access Management is added as a new process to ITIL V3. The sub-processes of Access Management are as follows: Maintain Catalogue of User Roles and Access Profiles Manage User Access Requests Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration Management (CM) is an Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) IT Service Management (ITSM) process. It tracks all of the individual Configuration Items (CI) in an IT system, which may be as simple as a single server, or as complex as the entire IT department. In large organizations a configuration manager may be appointed to oversee and manage the CM process.

QUESTION 56
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2000 domain-based network. Users report that they are unable to log on to the network. Mark finds that accounts are locked out due to multiple incorrect log on attempts. What is the most likely cause of the account lockouts?

 
 
 
 
Brute force attack is the most likely cause of the account lockouts. In a brute force attack, unauthorized users attempt to log on to a network or a computer by using multiple possible user names and passwords. Windows 2000 and other network operating systems have a security feature that locks a user account if the number of failed logon attempts occur within a specified period of time, based on the security policy lockout settings. Answer A is incorrect. Spoofing is a technique that makes a transmission appear to have come from an authentic source by forging the IP address, email address, caller ID, etc. In IP spoofing, a hacker modifies packet headers by using someone else’s IP address to hide his identity. However, spoofing cannot be used while surfing the Internet, chatting on-line, etc. because forging the source IP address causes the responses to be misdirected. Answer C is incorrect. A SYN attack affects computers running on the TCP/IP protocol. It is a protocol-level attack that can render a computer’s network services unavailable. A SYN attack is also known as SYN flooding. Answer D is incorrect. When a computer repeatedly sends ICMP echo requests to another computer, it is known as a PING attack.

QUESTION 57
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are preparing to plan risk responses for your project with your team. How many risk response types are available for a negative risk event in the project?

 
 
 
 
There are four risk responses available for a negative risk event. The risk response strategies for negative risks are: Avoid: It involves altering the project management plan to remove the threats completely. Transfer: It requires shifting some or all of the negative effects of a threat including the ownership of response, to a third party. Mitigate: It implies a drop in the probability and impact of an unfavorable risk event to be within suitable threshold limits. Accept: It delineates that the project plan will not be changed to deal with the risk. Management may develop a contingency plan if the risk occurs. It is used for both negative and positive risks. Answer C is incorrect. There are four responses for negative risk events. Answer A is incorrect. There are four, not three, responses for negative risk events. Do not forget that acceptance can be used for negative risk events. Answer B is incorrect. There are seven total risk responses, four of which can be used for negative risk events.

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Secure Software Implementation (14%):

  • Securely reuse 3rd-party libraries or code;
  • Evaluate code for various security risks – It requires the individuals’ skills in securing code reuse, dynamics application security testing, interactive application security testing, manual code review, static application security testing, and vulnerability list/databases;
  • Hold on to the appropriate secure coding practices – This subsection covers declarative vs. imperative, output sanitization, session management, concurrency, input validation, secure auditing & logging, secure configuration management, isolation, tokenizing, cryptography, and access control, among others;
  • Implement security controls;
  • Apply security in the course of building processes.

 

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