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Verified CISA dumps Q&As – 2024 Latest CISA Download [Q627-Q643]

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Verified CISA  dumps Q&As – 2024 Latest CISA  Download

Updated 100% Cover Real CISA Exam Questions – 100% Pass Guarantee

To be eligible for the CISA certification exam, individuals must have a minimum of five years of experience in the field of information systems auditing, control, or security. However, individuals with less experience can still take the exam and earn a CISA certification by obtaining the necessary work experience within five years of passing the exam.

To earn the CISA certification, candidates must pass a rigorous exam that covers various topics related to IT governance, risk management, audit process, and information security. CISA exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions that must be completed within four hours. Candidates must achieve a score of at least 450 out of 800 to pass the exam. In addition to passing the exam, candidates must also have at least five years of professional experience in information systems auditing, control, or security.

 

QUESTION 627
When is it MOST important for an IS auditor to apply the concept of materiality in an audit?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 628
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that an application is performing according to its specifications?

 
 
 
 
According to ISACA manual unit testing is: the testing of an individual program or module .unit testing uses a set of test cases that focus on the control structure of the procedural design.These tests ensure that the internal operation of the program performs according to specification.

QUESTION 629
Which of the following is the MOST efficient solution for a multi-location healthcare organization that wants to be able to access patient data wherever patients present themselves for care?

 
 
 
 
Explanation
The answer B is correct because Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is the most efficient solution for a multi-location healthcare organization that wants to be able to access patient data wherever patients present themselves for care. SaaS is a cloud computing model that allows users to access software applications over the internet, without having to install, maintain, or update them on their own devices or servers. SaaS providers host and manage the software applications and the underlying infrastructure, and handle any issues such as security, availability, and performance.
SaaS can offer several benefits for a multi-location healthcare organization, such as:
Accessibility: SaaS applications can be accessed from any device and location that has an internet connection, which enables the healthcare organization to access patient data across different facilities and regions, and provide seamless and coordinated care to the patients.
Scalability: SaaS applications can scale up or down according to the demand and usage of the healthcare organization, which allows the organization to accommodate fluctuations in patient volume, data volume, or service requirements.
Cost-effectiveness: SaaS applications are usually offered on a subscription or pay-per-use basis, which reduces the upfront and ongoing costs of purchasing, installing, and maintaining software licenses, hardware, and IT staff.
Security: SaaS providers are responsible for ensuring the security and privacy of the software applications and the data they store, which can help the healthcare organization comply with the relevant regulations and standards, such as HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) or GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation).
Some examples of SaaS providers that offer solutions for healthcare organizations are:
Epic: Epic is a leading provider of electronic health record (EHR) systems that enable healthcare organizations to store, manage, and share patient data across different settings and specialties. Epic also offers cloud-based solutions that allow healthcare organizations to access Epic’s software applications over the internet, without having to host them on their own servers.
Salesforce Health Cloud: Salesforce Health Cloud is a cloud-based platform that helps healthcare organizations connect with patients, providers, payers, and partners. Salesforce Health Cloud enables healthcare organizations to manage patient relationships, coordinate care teams, engage patients through personalized journeys, and leverage data and analytics to improve outcomes and efficiency.
DocuSign: DocuSign is a cloud-based platform that enables users to sign, send, and manage documents electronically. DocuSign can help healthcare organizations streamline workflows, reduce errors, and enhance compliance by automating the process of obtaining signatures for consent forms, contracts, prescriptions, referrals, and other documents.
The other options are not as efficient as option B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provider (option A) is a cloud computing model that provides users with access to computing resources such as servers, storage, network, and operating systems over the internet. IaaS can offer some benefits such as flexibility, scalability, and cost-effectiveness for a multi-location healthcare organization, but it also requires more technical expertise and management from the organization than SaaS. The organization would still need to install, configure, update, and secure the software applications that run on the IaaS infrastructure. Network segmentation (option C) is a technique that divides a network into smaller subnetworks based on criteria such as function, location, or security level. Network segmentation can improve the performance, security, and manageability of a network by reducing congestion, isolating threats, and enforcing policies. However, network segmentation alone does not enable a multi-location healthcare organization to access patient data wherever patients present themselves for care. The organization would still need a software solution that can store, manage, and share patient data across different segments of the network. Dynamic localization (option D) is a process that adapts the content and functionality of a software application to suit the preferences and needs of users in different locations or regions. Dynamic localization can enhance the user experience and satisfaction by providing relevant information in local languages, currencies, formats, and regulations. However, dynamic localization does not address the core issue of accessing patient data wherever patients present themselves for care. The organization would still need a software solution that can store, manage, and share patient data across different locations or regions.
References:
Epic
Salesforce Health Cloud
DocuSign

QUESTION 630
A warehouse employee of a retail company has been able to conceal the theft of inventory items by entering adjustments of either damaged or lost stock items lo the inventory system. Which control would have BEST prevented this type of fraud in a retail environment?

 
 
 
 
Explanation
Separate authorization for input of transactions. This control would have best prevented this type of fraud in a retail environment by ensuring that the warehouse employee who handles the inventory items does not have the authority to enter adjustments to the inventory system. This would create a segregation of duties that would reduce the risk of collusion and concealment of theft.
The other options are not as effective as option A in preventing this type of fraud. Option B, statistical sampling of adjustment transactions, is a detective control that may help identify fraudulent transactions after they have occurred, but it does not prevent them from happening in the first place. Option C, unscheduled audits of lost stock lines, is also a detective control that may reveal discrepancies between the physical and recorded inventory, but it does not address the root cause of the fraud. Option D, an edit check for the validity of the inventory transaction, is a preventive control that may help verify the accuracy and completeness of the transaction data, but it does not prevent unauthorized or fraudulent adjustments.
References:
ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database – 12 Month Subscription Different Types of Inventory Fraud and How to Prevent Them1
6 Ways to Prevent Inventory Fraud in Your Business2

QUESTION 631
Which of the following is the MOST important prerequisite to performing an information security assessment?

 
 
 
 
Section: Protection of Information Assets

QUESTION 632
The technique of rummaging through commercial trash to collect useful business information is known as:

 
 
 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Dumpster diving in the form of information diving describes the practice of rummaging through commercial trash to find useful information such as files, letters, memos, passwords …etc.

QUESTION 633
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of an information security governance
framework?

 
 
 
 
Section: Governance and Management of IT
Explanation

QUESTION 634
To determine who has been given permission to use a particular system resource, an IS auditor should review:

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Access control lists are the authorization tables that document the users who have been given permission to use a particular system resource and the types of access they have been granted. The other choices would not document who has been given permission to use (access) specific system resources.

QUESTION 635
Which of the following will MOST likely compromise the control provided By a digital signature created using RSA encryption?

 
 
 
 
Explanation
A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that verifies the authenticity and integrity of a message or document, by using a hash function and an asymmetric encryption algorithm. A hash function is a mathematical function that transforms any input data into a fixed-length output value called a digest, which is unique for each input. An asymmetric encryption algorithm uses two keys: a public key and a private key. The public key can be shared with anyone, while the private key must be kept secret by the owner. To create a digital signature, the sender first applies a hash function to the plaintext message to generate a digest. Then, the sender encrypts the digest with their private key to produce the digital signature. To verify the digital signature, the receiver decrypts the digital signature with the sender’s public key to obtain the digest. Then, the receiver applies the same hash function to the plaintext message to generate another digest. If the two digests match, it means that the message has not been altered and that it came from the sender. The security of a digital signature depends on the secrecy of the sender’s private key. If an attacker obtains the sender’s private key, they can create fake digital signatures for any message they want, thus compromising the control provided by the digital signature. Reversing the hash function using the digest is not possible, as hash functions are designed to be one-way functions that cannot be inverted. Altering the plaintext message will result in a different digest after applying the hash function, which will not match with the decrypted digest from the digital signature, thus invalidating the digital signature. Deciphering the receiver’s public key is not relevant, as public keys are meant to be publicly available and do not affect the security of digital signatures.

QUESTION 636
Which of the following is the BEST disposal method for flash drives that previously stored confidential data?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 637
Identify the network topology from below diagram presented below:

Network Topology

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
For your exam you should know the information below related to LAN topologies:
LAN Topologies
Network topology is the physical arrangement of the various elements (links, nodes, etc.) of a computer network.
Essentially, it is the topological structure of a network, and may be depicted physically or logically. Physical topology refers to the placement of the network’s various components, including device location and cable installation, while logical topology shows how data flows within a network, regardless of its physical design.
Distances between nodes, physical interconnections, transmission rates, and/or signal types may differ between two networks, yet their topologies may be identical.
Bus
In local area networks where bus topology is used, each node is connected to a single cable. Each computer or server is connected to the single bus cable. A signal from the source travels in both directions to all machines connected on the bus cable until it finds the intended recipient. If the machine address does not match the intended address for the data, the machine ignores the data. Alternatively, if the data matches the machine address, the data is accepted. Since the bus topology consists of only one wire, it is rather inexpensive to implement when compared to other topologies. However, the low cost of implementing the technology is offset by the high cost of managing the network. Additionally, since only one cable is utilized, it can be the single point of failure. If the network cable is terminated on both ends and when without termination data transfer stop and when cable breaks, the entire network will be down.
Bus topology
Graphic from:

http://www.technologyuk.net/telecommunications/networks/images/bus_topology.gif Linear bus The type of network topology in which all of the nodes of the network are connected to a common transmission medium which has exactly two endpoints (this is the ‘bus’, which is also commonly referred to as the backbone, or trunk) – all data that is transmitted between nodes in the network is transmitted over this common transmission medium and is able to be received by all nodes in the network simultaneously.
Distributed bus
The type of network topology in which all of the nodes of the network are connected to a common transmission medium which has more than two endpoints that are created by adding branches to the main section of the transmission medium – the physical distributed bus topology functions in exactly the same fashion as the physical linear bus topology (i.e., all nodes share a common transmission medium).
Star
In local area networks with a star topology, each network host is connected to a central point with a point- to-point connection. In Star topology every node (computer workstation or any other peripheral) is connected to central node called hub or switch.
The switch is the server and the peripherals are the clients. The network does not necessarily have to resemble a star to be classified as a star network, but all of the nodes on the network must be connected to one central device.
All traffic that traverses the network passes through the central point. The central point acts as a signal repeater.
The star topology is considered the easiest topology to design and implement. An advantage of the star topology is the simplicity of adding additional nodes. The primary disadvantage of the star topology is that the central point represents a single point of failure.
Star Topology

Image from: http://fcit.usf.edu/network/chap5/pics/star.gif
Ring
A network topology that is set up in a circular fashion in which data travels around the ring in one direction and each device on the ring acts as a repeater to keep the signal strong as it travels. Each device incorporates a receiver for the incoming signal and a transmitter to send the data on to the next device in the ring.
The network is dependent on the ability of the signal to travel around the ring. When a device sends data, it must travel through each device on the ring until it reaches its destination. Every node is a critical link. If one node goes down the whole link would be affected.
Ring Topology

Image from: https://forrester-infosystems.wikispaces.com/
Mesh
The value of a fully meshed networks is proportional to the exponent of the number of subscribers, assuming that communicating groups of any two endpoints, up to and including all the endpoints, is approximated by Reed’s Law.
A mesh network provides for high availability and redundancy. However, the cost of such network could be very expensive if dozens of devices are in the mesh.
Mesh Topology

Image from: http://www.technologyuk.net/telecommunications/networks/images/mesh_topology.gif Fully connected mesh topology A fully connected network is a communication network in which each of the nodes is connected to each other. In graph theory it known as a complete graph. A fully connected network doesn’t need to use switching nor broadcasting. However, its major disadvantage is that the number of connections grows quadratic ally with the number of nodes, so it is extremely impractical for large networks. A two-node network is technically a fully connected network.
Partially connected mesh topology
The type of network topology in which some of the nodes of the network are connected to more than one other node in the network with a point-to-point link – this makes it possible to take advantage of some of the redundancy that is provided by a physical fully connected mesh topology without the expense and complexity required for a connection between every node in the network.
The following answers are incorrect:
The other options presented are not valid.
The following reference(s) were/was used to create this question:
CISA review manual 2014, Page number 262

QUESTION 638
In the course of performing a risk analysis, an IS auditor has identified threats and potential impacts. Next, the IS auditor should:

 
 
 
 
Section: Protection of Information Assets
Explanation:
It is important for an IS auditor to identify and evaluate the existing controls and security once the potential threats and possible impacts are identified. Upon completion of an audit an IS auditor should describe and discuss with management the threats and potential impacts on the assets.

QUESTION 639
Which of the following tests is MOST likely to detect an error in one subroutine resulting from a recent change in another subroutine?

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 640
Is it appropriate for an IS auditor from a company that is considering outsourcing its IS processing to request and review a copy of each vendor’s business continuity plan?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The primary responsibility of an IS auditor is to assure that the company assets are being safeguarded.
This is true even if the assets do not reside on the immediate premises. Reputable service bureaus will have a well-designed and tested business continuity plan.

QUESTION 641
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that an application is performing according to its specifications?

 
 
 
 
Integration testing is the best way to ensure that an application is performing according to its specifications, because it tests the interaction and compatibility of different modules or components of the application. Unit testing, pilot testing and system testing are also important, but they do not cover the whole functionality and integration of the application as well as integration testing does. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.3

QUESTION 642
For an organization that has plans to implement web-based trading, it would be MOST important for an IS auditor to verify the organization’s information security plan includes:

 
 
 
 

QUESTION 643
An IS auditor should be MOST concerned if which of the following fire suppression systems is utilized to protect an asset storage closet?

 
 
 
 
A CO2 system could be a concern for an IS auditor when used to protect an asset storage closet. While CO2 systems are effective at suppressing fires, they can pose a significant safety risk to personnel. In the event of a fire, the CO2 system would fill the room with carbon dioxide, displacing the oxygen. This could be hazardous to anyone who might be in the room at the time12.
References: ISACA’s Information Systems Auditor Study Materials1

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