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  • [Jun 04, 2023] Pass CRISC Review Guide, Reliable CRISC Test Engine [Q35-Q58]

[Jun 04, 2023] Pass CRISC Review Guide, Reliable CRISC Test Engine [Q35-Q58]

Posted on June 4, 2023 By freedumps No Comments on [Jun 04, 2023] Pass CRISC Review Guide, Reliable CRISC Test Engine [Q35-Q58]
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[Jun 04, 2023] Pass CRISC Review Guide, Reliable CRISC Test Engine

CRISC Test Engine Practice Test Questions, Exam Dumps

The exam itself is a four-hour test that covers four main domains: risk identification, assessment, response, and monitoring. Each domain is weighted differently, with risk identification and assessment accounting for 27% of the exam, risk response accounting for 23%, and risk monitoring accounting for 21%. The remaining 29% of the exam covers topics related to governance, risk management, and compliance.

To be eligible to take the exam, candidates must have at least three years of experience in the fields of risk management or information systems control, as well as a solid understanding of the principles and practices of these areas. Additionally, candidates must meet certain educational requirements and agree to abide by the ISACA Code of Professional Ethics.

 

NO.35 Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control action plan’s implementation?

 
 
 
 
Section: Volume D

NO.36 What are the MOST essential attributes of an effective Key control indicator (KCI)?

 
 
 
 

NO.37 You are working in an enterprise. Assuming that your enterprise periodically compares finished goods inventory levels to the perpetual inventories in its ERP system. What kind of information is being provided by the lack of any significant differences between perpetual levels and actual levels?

 
 
 
 
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
The lack of any significant differences between perpetual levels and actual levels provides indirect information that its billing controls are operating. It does not provide any direct information.
Incorrect Answers:
A: It does not provide direct information as there is no information about the propriety of cutoff.
C, D: These are not the types of information.

NO.38 An organization’s HR department has implemented a policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days leave per year to mitigate the risk of malicious insider activities. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of this policy?

 
 
 
 

NO.39 Out of several risk responses, which of the following risk responses is used for negative risk events?

 
 
 
 
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
Among the given choices only Acceptance response is used for negative risk events. Risk acceptance means that no action is taken relative to a particular risk; loss is accepted if it occurs. If an enterprise adopts a risk acceptance, it should carefully consider who can accept the risk. Risk should be accepted only by senior management in relationship with senior management and the board. There are two alternatives to the acceptance strategy, passive and active.
* Passive acceptance means that enterprise has made no plan to avoid or mitigate the risk but willing to accept the consequences of the risk.
* Active acceptance is the second strategy and might include developing contingency plans and reserves to deal with risks.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, C: These all are used to deal with opportunities or positive risks, and not with negative risks.

NO.40 An organization has experienced a cyber attack that exposed customer personally identifiable information (Pll) and caused extended outages of network services. Which of the following stakeholders are MOST important to include in the cyber response team to determine response actions?

 
 
 
 

NO.41 Which of the following is the BEST approach for selecting controls to minimize risk?

 
 
 
 

NO.42 Your project change control board has approved several scope changes that will drastically alter your project plan. You and the project team set about updating the project scope, the WBS, the WBS dictionary, the activity list, and the project network diagram. There are also some changes caused to the project risks, communication, and vendors. What also should the project manager update based on these scope changes?

 
 
 
 
 
is incorrect. The process improvement plan aims to improve the project’s processes regardless of scope changes. Answer: B is incorrect. The vendor selection process likely will not change because of added scope changes. The vendors in the project may, but the selection process will not. Answer: A is incorrect. The stakeholder identification process will not change because of scope additions. The number of stakeholders may change but how they are identified will not be affected by the scope addition.

NO.43 John is the project manager of the NHQ Project for his company. His project has 75 stakeholders, some of which are external to the organization. John needs to make certain that he communicates about risk in the most appropriate method for the external stakeholders. Which project management plan will be the best guide for John to communicate to the external stakeholders?

 
 
 
 
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
The Communications Management Plan will direct John on the information to be communicated, when to communicate, and how to communicate with external stakeholders.
The Communications Management Plan aims to define the communication necessities for the project and how the information will be circulated. The Communications Management Plan sets the communication structure for the project. This structure provides guidance for communication throughout the project’s life and is updated as communication needs change. The Communication Managements Plan identifies and defines the roles of persons concerned with the project. It includes a matrix known as the communication matrix to map the communication requirements of the project.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Risk Response Plan identifies how risks will be responded to.
C: The Project Management Plan is the parent of all subsidiary management plans and it is not the most accurate choice for this question D: The Risk Management Plan defines how risks will be identified, analyzed, responded to, and controlled throughout the project.

NO.44 Which of the following is the MAIN benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

 
 
 
 

NO.45 An IT risk practitioner is evaluating an organization’s change management controls over the last six months. The GREATEST concern would be an increase in:

 
 
 
 

NO.46 You are the risk professional of your enterprise. You need to calculate potential revenue loss if a certain risks occurs. Your enterprise has an electronic (e-commerce) web site that is producing US $1 million of revenue each day, then if a denial of service (DoS) attack occurs that lasts half a day creates how much loss?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Denial-of-service attack (DoS attack) or distributed denial-of-service attack (DDoS attack) is an attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users. Although the means to carry out, motives for, and targets of a DoS attack may vary, it generally consists of the concerted efforts of person or persons to prevent an Internet site or service from functioning efficiently or at all, temporarily or indefinitely.
Perpetrators of DoS attacks typically target sites or services hosted on high-profile web servers such as banks, credit card payment gateways, and even root name-servers. The term is generally used with regards to computer networks, but is not limited to this field; for example, it is also used in reference to CPU resource management As the total revenue of the website for the day is $1 million, and due to denial of service attack it is unavailable for half day.
Therefore,
Revenue loss = $1,000,000/2
= $500,000
Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: These are wrong answers.

NO.47 In which of the following risk management capability maturity levels does the enterprise takes major business decisions considering the probability of loss and the probability of reward? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Enterprise having risk management capability maturity level 4 and 5 takes business decisions considering the probability of loss and the probability of reward, i.e., considering all the aspects of risk.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Enterprise having risk management capability maturity level 0 takes business decisions without considering risk credential information.
B: At this low level of risk management capability the enterprise take decisions considering specific risk issues within functional and business silos (e.g., security, business continuity, operations).

NO.48 An organization has four different projects competing for funding to reduce overall IT risk. Which project should management defer?

 
 
 
 

NO.49 Stephen is the project manager of the GBB project. He has worked with two subject matter experts and his project team to complete the risk assessment technique. There are approximately 47 risks that have a low probability and a low impact on the project. Which of the following answers best describes what Stephen should do with these risk events?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The low probability and low impact risks should be added to a watchlist for future monitoring.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The risk response for these events may be to accept them, but the best answer is to first add them to a watchlist.
C: Risks are not dismissed; they are at least added to a watchlist for monitoring.
D: While the risks may eventually be added to the register, the best answer is to first add them to the watchlist for monitoring.

NO.50 Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk trends over time?

 
 
 
 
Section: Volume D

NO.51 Which of the following is true for Single loss expectancy (SLE), Annual rate of occurrence (ARO), and Annual loss expectancy (ALE)?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A quantitative risk assessment quantifies risk in terms of numbers such as dollar values. This involves gathering data and then entering it into standard formulas. The results can help in identifying the priority of risks. These results are also used to determine the effectiveness of controls. Some of the terms associated with quantitative risk assessments are:
Single loss expectancy (SLE)-It refers to the total loss expected from a single incident. This incident

can occur when vulnerability is being exploited by threat. The loss is expressed as a dollar value such as $1,000. It includes the value of data, software, and hardware. SLE = Asset value * Exposure factor Annual rate of occurrence (ARO)-It refers to the number of times expected for an incident to occur in a

year. If an incident occurred twice a month in the past year, the ARO is 24. Assuming nothing changes, it is likely that it will occur 24 times next year. Annual loss expectancy (ALE)-It is the expected loss for a year. ALE is calculated by multiplying SLE with ARO. Because SLE is a given in a dollar value, ALE is also given in a dollar value. For example, if the SLE is $1,000 and the ARO is 24, the ALE is $24,000.
ALE = SLE * ARO Safeguard value-This is the cost of a control. Controls are used to mitigate risk. For

example, antivirus software of an average cost of $50 for each computer. If there are 50 computers, the safeguard value is $2,500. A, B, C: These are wrong formulas and are not used in quantitative risk assessment.

NO.52 A risk practitioner recently discovered that sensitive data from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address this situation?

 
 
 
 
Section: Volume D

NO.53 When updating the risk register after a risk assessment, which of the following is MOST important to include?

 
 
 
 

NO.54 Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

 
 
 
 
Section: Volume D

NO.55 Assessing the probability and consequences of identified risks to the project objectives, assigning a risk score to each risk, and creating a list of prioritized risks describes which of the following processes?

 
 
 
 
 
 
is incorrect. Risk Management is used to identify, assess, and control risks. It includes
analyzing the value of assets to the business, identifying threats to those assets, and evaluating
how vulnerable each asset is to those threats.
Assessing the probability and consequences of identified risks is only the part of risk management.

NO.56 Which of the following is the HIGHEST risk of a policy that inadequately defines data and system ownership?

 
 
 
 
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There is an increased risk without a policy defining who has the responsibility for granting access to specific data or systems, as one could gain system access without a justified business needs. There is better chance that business objectives will be properly supported when there is appropriate ownership.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, D: These risks are not such significant as compared to unauthorized access.

NO.57 A control owner has completed a year-long project To strengthen existing controls. It is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

 
 
 
 

NO.58 A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

 
 
 
 

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The benefit in Obtaining the CRISC Exam Certification

  • CRISC supports candidate knowledge and experience in the assigned region and shows their capacity for responding to any challenge.
  • Allows candidate capability in IS audit, control and security profession.
  • Candidates with this certification for the best part they earn 47.54% higher pay.
  • CRISC can likewise offer a profession jump as an advancement by separating candidates from different people who are not CRISC confirmed
  • A internationally accepted as the characteristic of excellence for the IS audit professional.

 

100% Free CRISC Daily Practice Exam With 1196 Questions: https://www.free4dump.com/CRISC-braindumps-torrent.html

         

Related Links: www.stes.tyc.edu.tw www.stes.tyc.edu.tw myportal.utt.edu.tt myportal.utt.edu.tt www.stes.tyc.edu.tw www.stes.tyc.edu.tw

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