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  • Sep 28, 2022 Detailed New 8010 Exam Questions for Concept Clearance [Q53-Q71]

Sep 28, 2022 Detailed New 8010 Exam Questions for Concept Clearance [Q53-Q71]

Posted on September 28, 2022 By freedumps No Comments on Sep 28, 2022 Detailed New 8010 Exam Questions for Concept Clearance [Q53-Q71]
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Sep 28, 2022 Detailed New 8010 Exam Questions for Concept Clearance

8010 Exam Preparation Material with New 8010 Dumps Questions.

Q53. The generalized Pareto distribution, when used in the context of operational risk, is used to model:

 
 
 
 
Explanation
Some risk experts have suggested the use of extreme value theory to model tail risk or extreme events for operational risk. The generalized Pareto model or the Peaks-over-Threshold (POT) model are often used to model extreme value distributions, and therefore Choice ‘a’ is the correct answer.

Q54. Which of the following statements are true:
I. A high score according to Altman’s Z-Score methodology indicates a lower default risk II. A high score according to theProbit or Logit models indicates a higher default risk III. A high score according to Altman’s Z-Score methodology indicates a higher default risk IV. A high score according to the Probit or Logit models indicates a lower default risk

 
 
 
 
Explanation
A high score under the probit and logit models indicates a higher default risk, while under Altman’s methodology it indicates a lower default risk. Therefore Choice ‘d’ is the correct answer.

Q55. The frequency distribution for operational risk loss events can be modeled by which of the following distributions:
I. The binomial distribution
II. The Poisson distribution
III. The negative binomial distribution
IV. The omega distribution

 
 
 
 
Explanation
The binomial, Poisson and the negative binomialdistributions can all be used to model the loss event frequency distribution. The omega distribution is not used for this purpose, therefore Choice ‘a’ is the correct answer.
Also note that the negative binomial distribution provides the best model fit because it has more parameters than the binomial or the Poisson. However, in practice the Poisson distribution is most often used due to reasons of practicality and the fact that the key model risk in such situations does not arise from the choice of an incorrect underlying distribution.

Q56. Which of the following losses can be attributed to credit risk:
I. Losses in a bond’s value from a credit downgrade
II. Losses in a bond’s value from an increase in bond yields
III. Losses arising from a bond issuer’sdefault
IV. Losses from an increase in corporate bond spreads

 
 
 
 
Explanation
Losses due to credit risk include the loss of value from credit migration and default events (which can be considered a migration to the ‘default’ category). Therefore Choice ‘d’ is the correct answer. Changes in spreads or interest rates are examples of market risk events.
[Discussion: It may be argued that losses from spreads changing could be categorized as credit risk and not market risk. The distinction between credit and market risk is never really watertight.
The reason I have called it market risk in this question is because spreads can change due to two reasons: first, due to the individual issuer going down in their credit rating (whether issued or perceived, as we have witnessed in Europe sovereign debt), and second due to the spread for the overall category changing due to macro fundamentals with nothing changing for the individual issuer. For example the spread between municipal bonds and treasuries may be small during boom times and may expand during recessions – regardless of how the individual issuer has been doing. Clearly, the first case is credit risk and the second is probably market risk.
A changein overall corporate bond spreads is something I would consider akin to a rate change – which is why I have called it as not a part of credit risk. But an alternative perspective may not be incorrect either.]

Q57. Which loss event type is the failure to timely deliver collateral classified as under the Basel II framework?

 
 
 
 
Explanation
Refer to the detailed loss event type classification under Basel II (see Annex 9 of the accord). You should know the exact names of all loss event types, and examples of each.

Q58. CreditRisk+, the actuarial model for calculating portfolio credit risk, is based upon:

 
 
 
 
Explanation
CreditRisk+ treats default as a binary event, ignoring downgrade risk, capital structures of individual firms in the portfolio or the causes of default. It uses a single parameter, or the mean default rate, and derives credit risk based upon the Poisson distribution. Therefore Choice ‘c’ is the correct answer.

Q59. Which of the following cannot be used as an internal credit rating model to assess an individual borrower:

 
 
 
 
Explanation
Altman’s Z-score, the Probit and the Logit models can all be used to assess the credit rating of an individual borrower. There is no such model as the ‘distance todefault model’, and therefore Choice ‘a’ is the correct answer.

Q60. If EV be the expected value of a firm’s assets in a year, and DP be the ‘default point’ per the KMV approach to credit risk, and be the standard deviation of future asset returns, then the distance-to-default is given by:
A)

B)

C)

D)

 
 
 
 
Explanation
The distance to default is the number of standard deviations that expected asset values are away from the default point. The expression in Choice ‘d’ represents distance to default. Choice ‘d’ is the correct answer. The other choices are incorrect.

Q61. When compared to a low severity high frequency risk, the operational risk capital requirement for a medium severity medium frequency risk is likely to be:

 
 
 
 
Explanation
High frequency and low severity risks, for example the risks of fraud losses for a credit card issuer, may have high expected losses, but low unexpected losses. In other words, we can generally expect these losses tostay within a small expected and known range. The capital requirement will be the worst case losses at a given confidence level less expected losses, and in such cases this can be expected to be low.
On the other hand, medium severity medium frequency risks, such as the risks of unexpected legal claims,
‘fat-finger’ trading errors, will have low expected losses but a high level of unexpected losses. Thus the capital requirement for such risks will be high.
It is also worthwhile mentioning high severity andlow frequency risks – for example a rogue trader circumventing all controls and bringing the bank down, or a terrorist strike or natural disaster creating other losses – will probably have zero expected losses & high unexpected losses but only at very highlevels of confidence. In other words, operational risk capital is unlikely to provide for such events and these would lie in the part of the tail that is not covered by most levels of confidence when calculating operational risk capital.
Note that risk capital is required for only unexpected losses as expected losses are to be borne by P&L reserves. Therefore the operational risk capital requirements for a low severity high frequency risk is likely to be low when compared to other risks that are lower frequency but higher severity.
Thus Choice ‘c’ is the correct answer.

Q62. For a loan portfolio, unexpected losses are charged against:

 
 
 
 
Explanation
Creditreserves are created in respect of expected losses, which are considered the cost of doing business.
Unexpected losses are borne by economic credit capital, which is a part of economic capital. This question is a bit nuanced – and ‘economic capital’ wouldgenerally be a good answer as well. However, taking a rather beady eyed view of the terminology and distinguishing between ‘economic credit capital’ which is a subset of
‘economic capital’, we can say that ‘economic credit capital’ is a more appropriateChoice ‘a’s the question relates to credit losses.

Q63. A key problem with return on equity as a measure of comparative performance is:

 
 
 
 
Explanation
The major problem with using return onequity as a measure of performance is that return on equity is not adjusted for risk. Therefore, a riskier investment will always come out ahead when compared to a less risky investment when using return on equity as a performance metric.
Return on equitydoes not ignore the effect of leverage (though return on assets does) because it considers the income attributable to equity, including income from leveraged investments.
Return on equity is generally measured after interest and taxes at the company wide level, though at business unit level it may use earnings before interest and taxes. However this does not create a problem so long as all performance being covered is calculated in the same way.
Cash flows being different from accounting earnings can createliquidity issues, but this does not affect the effectiveness of ROE as a measure of performance.

Q64. Which of the following statements are true?
I. Retail Risk Based Pricing involves using borrower specific data to arrive at both credit adjudication and pricing decisions II. An integrated ‘Risk Information Management Environment’ includes two elements – people and processes III. A Logical Data Model (LDM) lays down the relationships between data elements that an organization stores IV. Reference Data and Metadata refer to the same thing

 
 
 
 
Explanation
Statement I is correct. Retail Risk Based Pricing (RRBP) involves the use of borrower specific data (such as FICO scores, average balances etc) to arrive at credit decisions. These ‘retail’ credit decisions may include decisions on whether to grant a line of credit, a mortgage, issue a credit card, or any of the various other retail activities abank may be dealing with. At the same time, this data can also be used to price the product, in addition to providing a yes or no credit decision so that risky borrowers are charged more than less risky borrowers.
Statement II is not correct, because an integrated Risk Information Management Environment includes three elements – people, processes and technology (and not just people and processes).
Statement III is correct. An LDM is a blue print of an organization’s data, and describes the relationships between the various data elements.
Statement IV is not correct because reference data and metadata are not the same thing. Reference data refers to relatively static data, such as customer name (while actual transactions may not be so static). Metadata refers to data about data, and is stored in a data dictionary.
Therefore Choice ‘b’ is the correct answer and the rest are incorrect.

Q65. A long position in a creditsensitive bond can be synthetically replicated using:

 
 
 
 
Explanation
The correct answer is choice ‘a’
A long position in a credit sensitive bond is equivalent to earning the risk free rate and the spread on the bond.
The risk freerate can be earned through a long position in a treasury bond, and the spread can be earned in the form of premiums on a CDS, which are received by the protection seller, ie the party short a CDS contract.
Therefore we can get the same results as a long bond position using a combination of a long treasury bond and a short position in a CDS. Choice ‘a’ is the correct answer.

Q66. When building a operational loss distribution by combining a loss frequency distribution and a loss severity distribution, it is assumed that:
I. The severity of losses is conditional upon the numberof loss events
II. The frequency of losses is independent from the severity of the losses III. Both the frequency and severity of loss events are dependent upon the state of internal controls in the bank

 
 
 
 
Explanation
When a operational loss frequency distribution (which, for example, may be based upon a Poisson distribution) and a loss severity distribution (for example, based upon a lognormal distribution), it is assumed that the frequency of losses and the severity of the losses are completely independent and do not impact each other. Therefore statement II is correct, and the others are not valid assumptions underlying the operational loss distribution.

Q67. If X represents a matrix with ratings transition probabilities for one year, the transition probabilities for 3 years are given by the matrix:

 
 
 
 
Explanation
Assuming timeinvariance and the Markov property, it is easy to calculate the transition matrix for any time period as P^n, where P is the given transition matrix for one period and n the number of time periods that we need to compute the new transition matrix for. ThusChoice ‘b’ is the correct answer.

Q68. Which of the following techniques is used to generate multivariate normal random numbers that are correlated?

 
 
 
 
Explanation
A PRNG (pseudorandom number generators of the kind included in statistical packages and Excel) is used to generate random numbers that are not correlated with each other, ie they are random. A Markov process is a stochastic model that depends only upon its current state. Simulation underlies many financial calculations.
None of these directly relate to generating correlated multivariate normal random numbers. That job is done utilizing a Cholesky decomposition of the correlation matrix.
Specifically, a Cholesky decomposition involves the factorization of the correlation matrix into a lower triangular matrix (a square matrix all of whose entries above the diagonal are zero) and its transpose. This can then be combined with random numbers to generate a set of correlated normal random numbers. This technique is used for calculating Monte Carlo VaR.

Q69. Which of the following statements is true:

 
 
 
 
Explanation
Total expected losses which are average and anticipated are equal to the sum of expected losses in the underlying exposures. Total unexpected losses, which are the excess of worst case losses at a certain confidence level over the expected losses, benefit from the diversification effect and are lower than the sum of unexpected losses of the underlying exposures. Therefore Choice’c’ is the correct answer. The other choices are incorrect.

Q70. Which of the following are valid criticisms of value at risk:
I. There are many risks that a VaR framework cannot model
II. VaR does not considerliquidity risk
III. VaR does not account for historical market movements
IV. VaR does not consider the risk of contagion

 
 
 
 
Explanation
Risks such as abrupt changes to a firm’s businessmodel caused by legislation, or the introduction of capital controls in foreign countries where a firm in invested, geo-political risks etc are not modelable in the traditional sense. These risks cannot be modeled using VaR. Therefore statement I is correct.
VaR indeed does not consider liquidity risk, it is only concerned with the standard deviation of portfolio returns. Statement II is a valid criticism.
Statement III is not correct, as VaR can consider historical price movements.
Statement IV is correct,as VaR does not consider systemic risk or the risk of contagion.

Q71. Which of the following describes rating transition matrices published by credit rating firms:

 
 
 
 
Explanation
Transition matrices are used for building distributions of the value of credit portfolios, and are the realized frequencies of migration from one credit rating to another over a period, generally one year. Therefore Choice
‘d’ is the correct answer.
Since they represent an actually observed set of values, they are not probabilities nor are they forward looking ex-ante estimates, though they are often used as proxies for probabilities. Choice ‘a’ and Choice ‘c’ are not correct. They include more than information on just defaults, therefore Choice ‘b’ is not correct.

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