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  • Download 220-1201 Exam Dumps Questions to get 100% Success in CompTIA [Q144-Q165]

Download 220-1201 Exam Dumps Questions to get 100% Success in CompTIA [Q144-Q165]

Posted on March 21, 2026 By freedumps No Comments on Download 220-1201 Exam Dumps Questions to get 100% Success in CompTIA [Q144-Q165]
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Download 220-1201 Exam Dumps Questions to get 100% Success in CompTIA 

100% Accurate Answers! 220-1201 Actual Real Exam Questions

QUESTION 144
Which of the following connectors can be used to charge most modern mobile devices and may have the capacity to send data audio and video?

 
 
 
 
USB-C is a versatile connector that supports charging, high-speed data transfer, and the ability to send audio and video signals (e.g., DisplayPort over USB-C).
It is used by most modern mobile devices and laptops because of its fast transfer speeds and power delivery capabilities.

QUESTION 145
A computer training institute needs to implement multiple VLANs that must:
* Connect to each other with minimum hardware
* Communicate traffic at wire speed
Which of the following is the most suitable?

 
 
 
 
A Layer 3 switch is the optimal solution when multiple VLANs must intercommunicate while maintaining high performance and minimal hardware complexity. CompTIA A+ explains that Layer 3 switches combine the capabilities of switching (Layer 2) and routing (Layer 3), allowing VLAN traffic to be routed internally at wire speed, without the latency typically associated with traditional routers.
Layer 3 switches use hardware-based routing, meaning they forward inter-VLAN traffic using ASICs (Application-Specific Integrated Circuits). This allows them to achieve extremely fast throughput, ideal for environments like computer training institutes where multiple VLANs may be used for student labs, instructor networks, and administrative traffic.
A router (D) can route between VLANs but introduces more latency due to software-based routing and typically requires additional equipment. A Web application firewall (A) and DDoS appliance (B) are security devices unrelated to internal VLAN communication.
Because the institute requires minimal hardware and high-speed inter-VLAN communication, the Layer 3 switch is the only CompTIA-supported device that meets both requirements simultaneously.

QUESTION 146
A company wants to enable access to corporate email on smartphones. Employees will choose from a list of supported devices but must install software that separates corporate and personal data. Which of the following should the company implement to achieve this goal?

 
 
 
 
The correct solution for this scenario is Mobile Device Management (MDM). According to CompTIA Core
1 (220-1201) mobile device security and management objectives, MDM is specifically designed to manage, secure, and enforce policies on mobile devices used to access corporate resources.
MDM solutions allow organizations to require employees to install management software on their smartphones before accessing corporate email. One of the key features of MDM is data separation, often referred to as containerization, which keeps corporate data isolated from personal data on the same device.
This ensures that company information remains secure while still allowing employees to use their devices for personal purposes.
Encryption alone protects data but does not enforce separation or centralized control. Network access control (NAC) restricts which devices can connect to a network but does not manage data on the device itself.
Endpoint protection focuses on malware prevention and threat detection, not policy enforcement or data separation.
CompTIA emphasizes MDM as the primary solution for BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) and corporate mobile access scenarios, making it the most suitable and complete answer for this requirement.
References:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide – Mobile Device Management (MDM), BYOD Policies, and Mobile Security

QUESTION 147
An administrator is setting up a conference room for an important board of directors meeting. The chief operating officer has asked the administrator to make sure a redundant internet connection is available. The office only has one ISP. and the conference room equipment is currently configured using Ethernet. Which of the following should the administrator set up in order to ensure redundancy?

 
 
 
 
A hotspot provides a redundant internet connection using cellular data. This ensures connectivity for the meeting even if the primary ISP connection fails.

QUESTION 148
A technician is building a home desktop computer. The technician wants to prioritize cable management when considering the type of power supply. Which of the following power supply types should the technician consider?

 
 
 
 
A modular power supply is the best choice when cable management is a priority. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) power supply objectives, modular PSUs allow technicians to connect only the cables that are needed for the system’s components, reducing clutter inside the case.
This improves airflow, simplifies troubleshooting, and creates a cleaner internal layout, which is especially beneficial in home-built desktop systems. Semi-modular and fully modular power supplies offer varying degrees of flexibility, but all modular designs reduce unused cables compared to standard power supplies.
A standard (non-modular) power supply has all cables permanently attached, often resulting in excess unused cables that obstruct airflow. A backup power supply refers to an uninterruptible power supply (UPS), which provides battery backup but does not improve internal cable management. A redundant power supply is typically found in enterprise servers and includes multiple PSUs for fault tolerance, not cable management.
CompTIA emphasizes modular power supplies as a best practice for clean builds and efficient system design, making this the correct answer.

QUESTION 149
A user experiences a random BSOD while using a computer, but the operating system recovers as expected Which of the following symptoms would indicate the issue is related to RAM?

 
 
 
 
D:POST Code Beeps:
During the Power-On Self-Test (POST), the BIOS performs checks on system hardware, including RAM. If the RAM is faulty, POST may produce a series of beep codes indicating memory issues.
These beep codes are often the first sign of RAM-related problems, especially if the BSOD occurs randomly.
Incorrect Options:
A: Wrong BIOS configurations: Incorrect BIOS settings may cause boot errors, but they are less likely to cause random BSODs.
B: Continuous reboots: Continuous reboots could result from multiple hardware or software issues but do not specifically point to RAM.
C: Distended capacitors: Faulty capacitors typically affect the motherboard, not the RAM.
Key Takeaway: POST beep codes are a common diagnostic tool for identifying RAM-related issues.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 5.2 – Troubleshooting RAM and motherboard issues.

QUESTION 150
Which of the following provides electricity to devices through network cables?

 
 
 
 
A PoE (Power over Ethernet) switch transmits both data and electrical power over Ethernet cables to devices like wireless access points or VoIP phones. This is especially useful in areas where separate power sources are not available.
Reference: “CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide” by Quentin Docter – Chapter 5, pages 319-321.

QUESTION 151
Users working with large files back up the files to external hard drives. One user’s files take longer to back up than other users’ files. The user has tried backing up the files to other users’ drives with the same results.
Which of the following steps should the technician take first to correct this issue?

 
 
 
 
If a hard drive is heavily fragmented, file read/write operations can take significantly longer, causing slow backup speeds. Defragmenting the drive organizes the data for more efficient access.
Why Not A (Replace the hard drive’s USB cable): A faulty cable would typically cause disconnections or errors, not just slower speeds.
Why Not C (Update the storage drivers): This might help if the issue is with system drivers, but the described symptoms point to a fragmentation issue.
Why Not D (Compress the files): Compression reduces file size but does not address the root cause of the slow backups.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, storage troubleshooting.

QUESTION 152
A user goes to their office and forgets their laptop charger. After borrowing a charger, the user notices that the battery is charging slowly. Which of the following steps should a technician take first to charge the battery normally?

 
 
 
 
The most likely cause of slow charging after borrowing a charger is that the borrowed adapter is not the correct wattage or is not fully compatible with the laptop. Many laptops will still charge with an underpowered or non-matching adapter, but they often charge very slowly, may display a warning like
“plugged in, not charging fast,” or may reduce performance to stay within the available power budget. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 troubleshooting, the first step is to check the simplest and most probable cause, especially when the symptom began immediately after a change. Using the proper manufacturer- recommended charger (correct voltage/amperage and connector type, or correct USB-C PD wattage profile if applicable) restores normal charging behavior in most cases.
Adjusting battery performance settings might reduce power draw but does not address the root cause of insufficient charger output. Trying a different charging port can help if a port is damaged, but the timing strongly points to the borrowed charger. Replacing the battery is the most invasive and least likely first step because the battery was presumably functioning before the charger change. Therefore, the technician should first use a different, known-good power supply with the correct specifications.

QUESTION 153
A technician has just installed a new SSD into a computer, but the drive is not appearing. Which of the following is most likely the reason’s?

 
 
 
 
Improper seating is the most common reason an SSD isn’t recognized. Ensuring it is correctly connected resolves the issue.
Why Not A (Faulty SSD): A faulty SSD is possible but less likely than an installation issue.
Why Not B (Not formatted): Formatting affects data usability, not drive detection.
Why Not C (Incompatibility): SSD compatibility issues are rare with modern hardware.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.3, storage troubleshooting.

QUESTION 154
A user connects a PC to a projector and configures the projector to use HDMI. However, when the user tries to use the projector, the projector shows a black screen with the message “HDMI2 no signal found.” The user reports that the projector worked properly during a previous meeting.
Which of the following should the user do to fix the issue?

 
 
 
 
The error message “HDMI2 no signal found” indicates that the projector is set to an input source that is not currently receiving a video signal. Input source selection is one of the first items to verify when an external display shows a black screen but powers on correctly.
Many projectors have multiple HDMI ports (HDMI1, HDMI2, etc.). If the PC is connected to a different HDMI port than the one currently selected, the projector will display a “no signal” message even though the cable and device are functioning properly. Changing the input source to match the connected HDMI port resolves the issue quickly.

QUESTION 155
Which of the following allows a physical server to host multiple virtual machines?

 
 
 
 
A hypervisor is software or firmware that allows multiple operating systems (virtual machines) to run on a single physical host. It manages the allocation of resources and isolation of each VM.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Virtualization concepts:
“A hypervisor is the key component of virtualization, enabling a physical server to host multiple virtual machines (VMs), each with its own OS and resources.” Verified Source:
* CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization
* CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

QUESTION 156
Which of the following is an advantage of using the 2.4GHz wireless frequency?

 
 
 
 
The 2.4GHz frequency offers better range and penetration through walls and obstacles compared to higher frequencies like 5GHz. This makes it less affected by structural interference, though it provides fewer channels and lower speeds.

QUESTION 157
A customer reports their tablet was recently dropped on the ground. The tablet has a small crack in one corner of the display, and it does not charge when plugged in. Which of the following should a technician do first?

 
 
 
 
Physical damage from dropping a tablet may often affect ports or connectors. Before taking deeper diagnostic or replacement steps, it’s important to visually inspect the USB-C charging port for damage or debris. If the port is damaged, charging issues can occur regardless of battery health.

QUESTION 158
A technician checks a RAID 5 array and sees a S.M.A.R.T. alert on one disk, but the array still shows healthy. What should the technician do next?

 
 
 
 
CompTIA A+ teaches that S.M.A.R.T. warnings indicate imminent drive failure. Even if the RAID controller reports the array as “healthy,” a S.M.A.R.T. alert means the drive should be replaced immediately.
RAID 5 provides redundancy for one drive failure, but technicians should replace the degrading drive before it fails fully, ensuring the rebuild happens proactively.
Running chkdsk affects file systems, not drive health. Disabling write caching is unrelated. Rebuilding the array should only occur after replacing the faulty drive.
Replacing the drive prevents a catastrophic dual-drive failure scenario, which RAID 5 cannot survive.
This approach aligns with CompTIA troubleshooting guidelines for RAID maintenance and S.M.A.R.T. diagnostics.

QUESTION 159
Which of the following cloud models allows customers to connect to company resources from their laptops with the least amount of infrastructure?

 
 
 
 
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
SaaS (Software as a Service) is a cloud model that allows users to access applications over the Internet without managing the infrastructure or platform. Users can log in via a browser or app on any device, such as a laptop, with minimal configuration required.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 Official Study Guide, Section: Virtualization and Cloud Computing ConceptsSaaS provides “ready-to-use” applications and is ideal for organizations looking to minimize local infrastructure needs.

QUESTION 160
An IT specialist compares Bluetooth and NFC technologies for mobile device connectivity. Which of the following statements accurately describes a key difference between the two?

 
 
 
 
NFC (Near-Field Communication)operates at very short ranges — usually less than 4cm, and is ideal for quick, secure transactions like contact less payments. Bluetooth supports longer ranges (up to 10 meters or 32 feet)and is suited for ongoing connections like wireless headsets or file transfers.

QUESTION 161
Which of the following tools will a technician most likely use to identify an unlabeled network connection?

 
 
 
 
A toner probe is used to trace and identify unlabeled network cables by sending a signal through the cable and detecting it at the other end, making it ideal for locating specific connections.

QUESTION 162
An IT support specialist needs to configure several laptops to access local resources wherever the employees are while in the office. Which of the following would best meet this requirement?

 
 
 
 
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (From CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Concepts):
A consistent Wi-Fi SSID across all APs allows users to roam throughout the office while maintaining access to local resources without reconnecting manually.
CompTIA Core 1 Study Guide Concept Reference:
* Wireless networking configuration
* SSID broadcast and roaming
* WLAN infrastructure
The study guide explains that a common SSID enables seamless roaming and uninterrupted access to network resources.

QUESTION 163
SIMULATION 9
An office manager reports that a printer is experiencing performance issues. Printouts are smudging when they are handled, and, recently whenever they need to print legal sized documents, the paper jams before anything is printed on it.
The following paper sizes are used:
Letter (8.5x11in/21.59×27.94cm)
Legal (8.5x14in/21.59×35.56cm)
Oversized (11x17in/27.94×43.18cm)

INSTRUCTIONS
Using the dropdown menus, select from the available printer parts to replace only the faulty components on the office printer to resolve the stated issues.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

QUESTION 164
Which of the following connection methods allows a mobile device to share an LTE connection with other nearby devices?

 
 
 
 
A hotspot allows a mobile device to share its LTE (cellular) internet connection with other nearby devices via Wi-Fi, effectively turning the mobile device into a portable wireless access point.

QUESTION 165
A support technician receives a call stating that a user has added a device to the network. The user used the same configurations from another workstation. When both workstations are turned on, neither can access the network reliably. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?

 
 
 
 
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
If two devices have thesame static IP address, anIP conflictoccurs. This results in both devices being intermittently disconnected or unable to communicate on the network. It’s a common mistake when copying configurations manually.
* Option B:DNS conflicts wouldn’t cause total disconnection – and wouldn’t occur just from copying IP settings.
* Option C:A cable issue would only affect one workstation.
* Option D:Switchport security issues wouldn’t affect both machines simultaneously unless port security was configured very specifically.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
* Objective 2.6: Given a scenario, configure and troubleshoot network connectivity.

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