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  • [Q50-Q72] Latest 300-215 Exam with Accurate Conducting Forensic Analysis & Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps PDF Questions [Feb 26, 2026]

[Q50-Q72] Latest 300-215 Exam with Accurate Conducting Forensic Analysis & Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps PDF Questions [Feb 26, 2026]

Posted on February 26, 2026 By freedumps No Comments on [Q50-Q72] Latest 300-215 Exam with Accurate Conducting Forensic Analysis & Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps PDF Questions [Feb 26, 2026]
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[Feb 26, 2026] Latest 300-215 Exam with Accurate Conducting Forensic Analysis & Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps PDF Questions

Practice To 300-215 – Free4Dump Remarkable Practice On your Conducting Forensic Analysis & Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps Exam

NEW QUESTION 50
A security team received an alert of suspicious activity on a user’s Internet browser. The user’s anti-virus software indicated that the file attempted to create a fake recycle bin folder and connect to an external IP address. Which two actions should be taken by the security analyst with the executable file for further analysis? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

NEW QUESTION 51
An engineer is investigating a ticket from the accounting department in which a user discovered an unexpected application on their workstation. Several alerts are seen from the intrusion detection system of unknown outgoing internet traffic from this workstation. The engineer also notices a degraded processing capability, which complicates the analysis process. Which two actions should the engineer take? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 
When suspicious activity is detected on a workstation, immediate steps need to be taken to preserve evidence and prevent further compromise:
* Disconnecting the system from the network (C)is crucial to stop potential exfiltration of data or ongoing communications with a command-and-control server. This isolation prevents further spread or damage while preserving the state of the compromised system for further investigation.
* Taking an image of the workstation (E)is part of the forensics acquisition process. It involves creating a bit-by-bit copy of the system’s disk, which preserves all evidence in its current state. This allows for thorough forensic analysis without affecting the original evidence.
These steps align with the best practices outlined in the incident response and forensics processes (as described in theCyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide). Specifically, in theIdentification and Containmentphases of the incident response cycle, it’s emphasized that isolating the system and preserving evidence through imaging are critical to ensuring both containment of the threat and successful forensic investigation.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter: Understanding the Security Incident Response Process, Identification and Containment Phases, page 102-104.

NEW QUESTION 52
An organization fell victim to a ransomware attack that successfully infected 256 hosts within its network. In the aftermath of this incident, the organization’s cybersecurity team must prepare a thorough root cause analysis report. This report aims to identify the primary factor or factors that led to the successful ransomware attack and to develop strategies for preventing similar incidents in the future. In this context, what should the cybersecurity engineer include in the root cause analysis report to demonstrate the underlying cause of the incident?

 
 
 
 
According to the Cisco CyberOps Associate guide, the goal of a root cause analysis is to determine how an attacker successfully exploited a system so that similar vulnerabilities can be mitigated in the future. The
“method of infection” (e.g., phishing email with malicious attachment, drive-by download, credential compromise, etc.) is the most relevant factor in understanding the initial access vector and subsequent spread of ransomware across the network.
–

NEW QUESTION 53

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst notices unusual connections while monitoring traffic. What is the attack vector, and which action should be taken to prevent this type of event?

 
 
 
 

NEW QUESTION 54
Which tool is used for reverse engineering malware?

 
 
 
 

NEW QUESTION 55
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two actions should be taken based on the intelligence information? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 
The STIX intelligence feed in the exhibit identifies specific malicious domains, such as:
* fightcovid19.shop
* nocovid19.shop
* stopcovid19.shop
These are categorized as “Malicious FQDN Indicator.” The recommended cybersecurity actions when such threat intelligence is received are:
* D. Block network access to identified domains: This directly prevents users or systems from communicating with known malicious infrastructure and is a critical first step in threat mitigation.
* B. Add a SIEM rule to alert on connections to identified domains: This ensures that any attempted communication with these domains is flagged for immediate review and action, enabling real-time threat detection and incident response.
Blocking all .shop domains (Option A or C) would be overbroad and potentially disruptive, as many legitimate websites also use that TLD. Option E (routing to block hole) could be valid as a DNS strategy, but B and D represent the most actionable and precise responses per standard incident response practices.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter on “Threat Intelligence Platforms,” covering how to operationalize STIX/TAXII indicators via blocking and SIEM integration.

NEW QUESTION 56
An “unknown error code” is appearing on an ESXi host during authentication. An engineer checks the authentication logs but is unable to identify the issue. Analysis of the vCenter agent logs shows no connectivity errors. What is the next log file the engineer should check to continue troubleshooting this error?

 
 
 
 

NEW QUESTION 57
Refer to the exhibit.

What should be determined from this Apache log?

 
 
 
 

NEW QUESTION 58

Refer to the exhibit. What should an engineer determine from this Wireshark capture of suspicious network traffic?

 
 
 
 

NEW QUESTION 59

 
 
 
 
The code includes syntax and modules such asimport win32con,import win32api, and uses Python-specific formatting likedef,try/except, andprint, clearly indicating that this is written in Python. It also uses thewmimodule to monitor process creation events-a common technique in Python-based process monitoring scripts on Windows.
–

NEW QUESTION 60
An organization recovered from a recent ransomware outbreak that resulted in significant business damage. Leadership requested a report that identifies the problems that triggered the incident and the security team’s approach to address these problems to prevent a reoccurrence. Which components of the incident should an engineer analyze first for this report?

 
 
 
 

NEW QUESTION 61
Snort detects traffic that is targeting vulnerabilities in files that belong to software in the Microsoft Office suite. On a SIEM tool, the SOC analyst sees an alert from Cisco FMC. Cisco FMC is implemented with Snort IDs. Which alert message is shown?

 
 
 
 
Cisco Firepower Management Center (FMC), when configured with Snort rules, classifies attacks with signature categories such as FILE-OFFICE for Microsoft Office-based exploits. One of the critical threats involving Microsoft Office is a known vector involving Microsoft Graphics, which attackers exploit for remote code execution (RCE). RCE vulnerabilities enable attackers to execute arbitrary commands or code on the target machine-making this classification high-severity.
The alert “FILE-OFFICE Microsoft Graphics remote code execution attempt” is consistent with what Cisco and Snort define for such threats and appears in rulesets addressing vulnerabilities like CVE-2017-0001.
Reference: Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense and Snort rule categories in the Cisco CyberOps v1.2 Guide.
–

NEW QUESTION 62
In a secure government communication network, an automated alert indicates the presence of anomalous DLL files injected into the system memory during a routine update of communication protocols. These DLL files are exhibiting beaconing behavior to a satellite IP known for signal interception risks. Concurrently, there is an uptick in encrypted traffic volumes that suggests possible data exfiltration. Which set of actions should the security engineer prioritize?

 
 
 
 
In highly sensitive environments such as secure government networks, the presence of anomalous DLL injection, beaconing to known interception points, and signs of encrypted data exfiltration constitutes a critical incident. The appropriate response in such classified contexts involves:
* Invoking a pre-established, classified incident response protocol,
* Immediately notifying national cyber defense operatives (such as national CERT or military cyber command),
* Prioritizing containment to stop lateral spread,
* Proceeding with eradication of malware or backdoors.
This response sequence aligns with the high-severity, immediate-response model described in the Cisco CyberOps Associate v1.2 curriculum under national defense and classified incident frameworks. The study guide emphasizes the importance of stakeholder communication and multi-agency coordination during advanced persistent threat (APT) intrusions involving critical infrastructure or defense systems.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter: Critical Infrastructure and Advanced Threat Response, Incident Response Phases for Government Systems.

NEW QUESTION 63
What is the goal of an incident response plan?

 
 
 
 

NEW QUESTION 64
What is a concern for gathering forensics evidence in public cloud environments?

 
 
 
 
One of the primary concerns when gathering forensic evidence in public cloud environments is the issue of multitenancy. In a shared cloud infrastructure, multiple tenants (organizations or users) operate on the same physical hardware, using virtualization to logically separate resources. This architecture poses a significant challenge for forensic investigations because:
* Forensic investigators must ensure that they do not inadvertently access or expose data belonging to other tenants while collecting evidence.
* This can limit access to low-level system data or hardware-level logs that might be essential for a thorough forensic analysis, since providers must enforce strict data isolation policies.
* This concern is recognized in industry practices and guidelines, including NIST SP 800-86, which underscores the need to collect data in a forensically sound and legally defensible manner-something made more complex in shared environments.
The Cisco CyberOps Associate guide emphasizes the challenges of evidence handling in cloud environments, stating that “gathering evidence in the cloud must be carefully performed to ensure compliance with legal standards and to respect the boundaries of other tenants’ data”.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter on Digital Forensics and Cloud Environments, Section: Evidence Collection in Shared Infrastructure (Public Cloud).

NEW QUESTION 65
Refer to the exhibit.

What does the exhibit indicate?

 
 
 
 
The exhibit shows a PowerShell script that modifies registry keys under:
* HKCU:\Software\Classes\Folder\shell\open\command
This technique is commonly associated with aUAC (User Account Control) bypass. Specifically:
* It creates a new custom shell command path for opening folders.
* The key registry property”DelegateExecute”is set, which is a known bypass method. If set without a value, it may cause Windows to run commands with elevated privileges without showing the UAC prompt.
The use ofHKCU(HKEY_CURRENT_USER) rather thanHKLM(HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE) allows the attacker to bypass permissions since HKCU is writable by the current user. This registry hijack can be leveraged by a malicious actor to execute arbitrary commands with elevated rights.
This is identified in the Cisco CyberOps study material under “UAC bypass techniques,” which describes:
“Attackers often create or modify registry keys like DelegateExecute to hijack the default behavior of applications and elevate privileges”.
Thus, option B is correct: the exhibit demonstrates a UAC bypass using user-accessible registry modification.

NEW QUESTION 66
What is a concern for gathering forensics evidence in public cloud environments?

 
 
 
 

NEW QUESTION 67
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two actions should be taken as a result of this information? (Choose two.)

 
 
 
 
 

NEW QUESTION 68
Which issue is related to gathering evidence from cloud vendors?

 
 
 
 
In cloud environments, investigators typically do not have access to the physical storage devices where the data resides. This restricts traditional forensic processes, such as imaging or direct disk access, which are commonly used in on-premises investigations.

NEW QUESTION 69
Refer to the exhibit.

A company that uses only the Unix platform implemented an intrusion detection system. After the initial configuration, the number of alerts is overwhelming, and an engineer needs to analyze and classify the alerts.
The highest number of alerts were generated from the signature shown in the exhibit. Which classification should the engineer assign to this event?

 
 
 
 
The alert shown is based on aSnort rulefor aUnicode directory traversal attack against IIS web servers (Microsoft platform). The key detail here is the payload content”../..%c0%af../”which is a classic IIS-specific exploit related toCVE-2000-0884.
Since the company only usesUnix systems, they arenot vulnerableto this IIS-specific attack. Therefore, these alerts are triggered by irrelevant traffic or misapplied signatures, resulting inFalse Positives.
As defined in the Cisco CyberOps guide:
“False Positive: an alert is generated for traffic that is not actually malicious or relevant to the protected environment”.

NEW QUESTION 70
Which tool is used for reverse engineering malware?

 
 
 
 
Ghidrais a free and open-source software reverse engineering (SRE) suite developed by the NSA. It includes disassembly, decompilation, and debugging tools specifically designed for analyzing malware and other compiled programs.
The Cisco CyberOps guide referencesGhidraas a top tool for reverse engineering binary files during malware analysis tasks, making it ideal for understanding malicious code behavior at a deeper level.

NEW QUESTION 71
Refer to the exhibit.

A web hosting company analyst is analyzing the latest traffic because there was a 20% spike in server CPU usage recently. After correlating the logs, the problem seems to be related to the bad actor activities. Which attack vector is used and what mitigation can the analyst suggest?

 
 
 
 
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The log entries show repeated SSH login attempts for various invalid usernames (e.g., admin, phoenix, rainbow, test, user, etc.) from different source ports. These are clear signs of a brute-force attack-an automated process trying multiple usernames and passwords in hopes of gaining access.
Mitigating such attacks includes:
* Implementing account lockout policies (e.g., locking an account after several failed login attempts).
* Enabling Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) to ensure that password guessing alone is insufficient for account access.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
D). Brute-force attack; implement account lockout policies and roll out MFA.

NEW QUESTION 72
Refer to the exhibit.

A security analyst is reviewing alerts from the SIEM system that was just implemented and notices a possible indication of an attack because the SSHD system just went live and there should be nobody using it. Which action should the analyst take to respond to the alert?

 
 
 
 
The log entry shows a failed SSH login attempt for an invalid user “admin” from IP192.168.1.100. As the system has just gone live and no legitimate use is expected, this could be an early reconnaissance or brute- force attempt. However, blocking IPs or resetting passwords without fully understanding the context could lead to incomplete remediation or false positives.
According to Cisco CyberOps best practices, the first step is to thoroughly investigate the alert by correlating it with other logs (e.g., authentication logs, IDS/IPS logs) to determine the intent and scope of activity.
–

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